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What options or options can customers use for multi-site management with Mobility Express?
A. WebUl
B. Prime 3.4 or DNA Center
C. mobile app
D. WebUI or mobile app
Correct Answer: B
Topic Question 2:
What is the key architectural component that allows Cisco Meraki\’s data centers to be fully HIPAA and PCI-compliant?
A. non-existent command line interface
B. controller and server-free design
C. Layer 7 application fingerprinting
D. out-of-band control plane
Correct Answer: D
Topic Question 3:
What is one advantage of the Umbrella branch package?
A. prevent already-infected devices from connecting to command and control
B. prevent guest or corporate users from connecting to malicious domains and IP addresses
C. deploy the branch package on a Cisco ISR4K router in 4 easy steps
D. no client-side configuration is required
Correct Answer: B
Topic Question 4:
Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?
A. Cisco DNA Assurance
B. Cisco ACI Anywhere
C. Cisco DNA Spaces
D. Cisco HyperFlex
Correct Answer: A
Topic Question 5:
What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?
A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers
B. providing AMP support
C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center
D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard
Correct Answer: D
Topic Question 6:
Which Catalyst 9800 series controller would you recommend for small branch and campus deployments of up to 200 APs?
A. Catalyst 9800-SW
B. Catalyst 9800-CL
C. Catalyst 9800-40
D. Catalyst 9800-80
Correct Answer: A
Topic Question 7:
Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?
A. Sense, Act, and Partner
B. View, Interpret, and Act
C. See, Anticipate, and Respond
D. See, Act, and Extend
Correct Answer: D
Topic Question 8:
Which portfolio of Cisco routers supports Aggregation?
A. CSR 1000V
B. ASR 1000
C. ISR 4000
D. ISR 900
Correct Answer: C
Topic Question 9:
Which is an SKU for Mobility Express?
A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9
B. AlR-AP28021-K9
C. AIR-AP18151-K9C
D. AlR-AP18521-K9
Correct Answer: C
Topic Question 10:
What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?
A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments
B. modularity for investment protection
C. Cisco CleanAir
D. industry-leading hyper location
Correct Answer: D
Topic Question 11:
What is one benefit of the Cisco 1100 ISR router over the 900 ISR router for mid-size organizations?
A. The 1100 ISR provides support for xDSL types of WAN interfaces
B. The 1100 ISR is compatible with all Cisco switches.
C. The 1100 ISR provides APIC support.
D. The 1100 ISR includes a built-in firewall and advanced QOS features.
Correct Answer: C
Topic Question 12:
What is one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?
A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard
B. remote wipe any device on the network
C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth
D. enable virtual stacking
Correct Answer: A
Topic Question 13:
What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?
A. zoom lens
B. motion-based retention
C. low bit rate and frame rate
D. high definition
Correct Answer: B
Topic Question 14:
Which of these statements clearly depicts increasing sophistication in the security threat landscape?
A. 65% of attacks evade existing security tools
B. 66% of connected devices are mobile
C. 28% of top security constraints are caused by product compatibility
D. 25% of users spend their worktime off the network
Correct Answer: A
Topic Question 15:
What is Cisco Switch Selector?
A. a tool that can help customers compare options and identify the right switch for their needs
B. a dashboard view of all an enterprise\’s switches
C. a configuration tool that helps small business customers rapidly deploy a new switch
D. a cloud-based solution to optimize network performance
Correct Answer: A
…
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Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?
A. physical
B. transport
C. network
D. MAC
Correct Answer: C
Question 10:
Which two commands set the configuration register value? (Choose two.)
A. rommon>confreg 0x2102
B. router(config)#confreg 0x2102
C. rommon>config-register 0x2102
D. router(config)#configuration-register 0x2102
E. router(config)#config-register 0x2102
Correct Answer: AE
Question 11:
From the enable mode, which command loads the configuration during the password recovery process on a Cisco router?
A. load_helper
B. configure terminal
C. copy running-config startup-config
D. copy startup-config running-config
Correct Answer: D
Question 12:
Which device is a DTE device?
A. CSU/DSU
B. router
C. cable modem
D. DSL modem
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
What does Cisco use for Return Materials Authorization tracking of field-replaceable parts?
A. product number
B. serial number
C. RMA number
D. FRU number
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
Which type of port is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?
A. rollover
B. fiber
C. straight-through
D. crossover
Correct Answer: C
Question 15:
ESD is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials, caused by direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field. Which three tools are used to avoid ESD? (Choose three.)
A. negative static bag
B. antistatic mat
C. ESD wrist strap
D. negative static mat
E. antistatic bag
F. latex gloves
Correct Answer: BCE
…
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Lead4Pass updates Cisco 400-007 dumps throughout the year, and more importantly, shares a part of the exam questions and answers for free each time, providing candidates with online practice tests! The May 400-007 dumps have been updated and verified as authentic and valid by the Cisco team! Now! Candidates can practice 400-007 test questions online! Or use the Lead4Pass 400-007 dumps with PDF and VCE formats: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-007.html (contains 270 most recent exam questions and answers!).
Cisco 400-007 Exam Questions Online Practice Test:
From
Number of exam questions
Exam name
Exam code
Lead4Pass
18
Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE Written)
400-007
QUESTION 1:
IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches.
Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes?
A. performance monitoring B. security C. observation of critical links D. capacity planning
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2:
What are two common approaches to analyzing and designing networks? (Choose two.)
A. bottom-up approach B. high-low security approach C. top-down approach D. left-right approach E. three-tier approach
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3:
Company XYZ uses an office model where the employees can use any open desk and plug their laptops in. They want to authenticate the end users using their domain username and password before allowing them access to the network.
The design must also accommodate the ability to control traffic within the same group or subnet if a macro (or micro) segmentation-based model is adopted in the future.
Which protocol can be recommended for this design to authenticate end users?
The Company XYZ network is experiencing attacks against its router. Which type of Control Plane Protection must be used on the router to protect all control plane IP traffic that is destined directly for one of the router interfaces?
A. Control Plane Protection host subinterface B. Control Plane Protection main interface C. Control Plane Protection transit subinterface D. Control Plane Protection CEF-exception subinterface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5:
Which three components are part of the foundational information security principles of the CIA triad? (Choose three.)
A. cryptography B. confidentiality C. C. authorization D. Identification E. integrity F. availability
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 6:
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7:
Which two mechanisms avoid suboptimal routing in a network with dynamic mutual redistribution between multiple OSPFv2 and EIGRP boundaries? (Choose two.)
A. AD manipulation B. matching OSPF external routes C. route tagging D. route tagging E. route filtering F. matching EIGRP process ID
A service provider recently migrated to an SD-WAN solution for delivering WAN connections to its customers. One of the main challenges with the SD-WAN deployment is that branch site volume increases every year, which causes management complexity.
Which action resolves the issue?
A. Implement a scalable network management system to manage all sites. B. Adopt a well-structured SD-WAN service management lifecycle model C. Build a service orchestration platform on top of the network controller D. Set up a dedicated team to monitor and provision new customers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9:
Which two aspects are considered when designing a dual hub dual DMVPN cloud topology? (Choose two )
A. will only work with single-tier headend architecture B. hub sites must connect to both DMVPN clouds C. recommended for high availability D. spoke-to-spoke traffic will transit the hub unless spokes exchange dynamic routing directly E. requires all sites to have dual Internet connections
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10:
A network architect in an enterprise is designing a network policy for certain database applications. The goal of the policy is to allow these applications to access the internet directly, whereas other user and network applications that communicate with systems or users outside their own network must be routed through the data center.
The focus is on achieving higher availability and a better user experience for the database applications, but switching between different network paths based on performance characteristics must be supported.
A healthcare provider discovers that the protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data.
Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue?
A. technical and physical access control B. administrative security management processes C. physical device and media control D. technical integrity and transmission security
There are multiple trees in the Cisco FabricPath All switches in the Layer 2 fabric share the same view of each tree. Which two concepts describe how the multicast traffic is load-balanced across this topology? (Choose two )
A. A specific (S.G) traffic is not load-balanced
B. All trees are utilized at the same level of the traffic rate
C. Every leaf node assigns the specific (S.G) to the same tree.
D. A specific (S.G) multicast traffic is load-balanced across all trees due to better link utilization efficiency.
E. The multicast traffic is generally load-balanced across all trees
Correct Answer: BD
Question 13:
An IT service provider is upgrading network infrastructure to comply with PCI security standards. The network team finds that 802.1X and VPN authentication based on locally- significant certificates are not available on some legacy phones.
Which workaround solution meets the requirement?
A. Replace legacy phones with new phones because legacy phones will lose trust if the certificate is renewed.
B. Enable phone VPN authentication based on end-user username and password.
C. Temporarily allow fallback to TLS 1.0 when using certificates and then upgrade the software on legacy phones.
D. Use authentication-based clear text passwords with no EAP-MD5 on legacy phones.
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Which two characteristics are associated with 802 1s? (Choose two)
A. 802.1s supports up to 1024 instances of 802.1
B. 802.1 s is a Cisco enhancement to 802.1w.
C. 802.1s provides for faster convergence over 802 1D and PVST+.
D. CPU and memory requirements are the highest of all spanning-tree STP implementations.
E. 802.1s map multiple VLANs to the same spanning-tree instance
Correct Answer: CE
Question 15:
A healthcare provider discovers that the protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue?
Which actions are performed at the distribution layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose two)
A. Fast transport
B. Reliability
C. QoS classification and marking the boundary
D. Fault isolation
E. Redundancy and load balancing
Correct Answer: DE
Question 17:
Two routers R1 and R2 are directly connected through an Ethernet link. Both routers are running OSPF over the Ethernet link and OSPF has been registered with BFD. R1 has been set up to transmit BFD at a 50 ms interval, but R2 can receive only at a 100 ms rate due to platform limitations. What does this mean?
A. After the initial timer exchange. R2 sets its transmission rate to the R1 Desired Min TX interval
B. After the initial timer exchange. R1 sets its transmission rate to the R2 Required Min RX interval
C. Timers renegotiate indefinitely, so the timer exchange phase never converges
D. R2 sets the P-bit on all BFD control packets until R2 sends a packet with the F-bit set
Correct Answer: B
Question 18:
Which solution component helps to achieve comprehensive threat protection and compliance for migration to multi-cloud SDX architectures?
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Question 1:
Examine This FortiGate configuration:
Examine the output of the following debug command:
Based on the diagnostic outputs above, how is FortiGate handling the traffic for new sessions that require inspection?
A. It is allowed, but with no inspection
B. It is allowed and inspected as long as the inspection is flow based
C. It is dropped.
D. It is allowed and inspected, as long as the only inspection required is an antivirus.
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A shows the system performance output. Exhibit B shows a FortiGate configured with the default configuration of high memory usage thresholds. Based on the system performance output, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Administrators can access FortiGate only through the console port.
B. FortiGate has entered conserve mode.
C. FortiGate will start sending all files to FortiSandbox for inspection.
D. Administrators cannot change the configuration.
Which three pieces of information does FortiGate use to identify the hostname of the SSL server when SSL certificate inspection is enabled? (Choose three.)
A. The subject field in the server certificate
B. The serial number in the server certificate
C. The server name indication (SNI) extension in the client hello message
D. The subject alternative name (SAN) field in the server certificate
Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a web browser to trust a web server certificate signed by a third-party CA?
A. The public key of the web server certificate must be installed on the browser.
B. The web-server certificate must be installed on the browser.
C. The CA certificate that signed the web-server certificate must be installed on the browser.
D. The private key of the CA certificate that signed the browser certificate must be installed on the browser.
Correct Answer: C
Question 5:
A FortiGate is operating in NAT mode and configured with two virtual LAN (VLAN) sub-interfaces added to the physical interface.
Statements about the VLAN subinterfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets.
A. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets.
B. The two VLAN sub-interfaces must have different VLAN IDs.
C. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they belong to different VDOMs.
D. The two VLAN subinterfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: B
FortiGate_Infrastructure_6.0_Study_Guide_v2-Online.pdf ?gt; page 147 “Multiple VLANs can coexist in the same physical interface provide they have different VLAN ID”
Question 6:
How does FortiGate act when using SSL VPN in web mode?
An administrator has configured a route-based IPsec VPN between two FortiGate devices. Which statement about this IPsec VPN configuration is true?
A. A phase 2 configuration is not required.
B. This VPN cannot be used as part of a hub-and-spoke topology.
C. A virtual IPsec interface is automatically created after the phase 1 configuration is completed.
D. The IPsec firewall policies must be placed at the top of the list.
Correct Answer: C
In a route-based configuration, FortiGate automatically adds a virtual interface with the VPN name (Infrastructure Study Guide, 206)
Question 11:
Examine this PAC file configuration.
Which of the following statements is true? (Choose two.)
A. Browsers can be configured to retrieve this PAC file from the FortiGate.
B. Any web request to the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet is allowed to bypass the proxy.
C. All requests not made to Fortinet.com or the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet, have to go through altproxy.corp.com: 8060.
D. Any web request fortinet.com is allowed to bypass the proxy.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 12:
Which two inspection modes can you use to configure a firewall policy on a profile-based next-generation firewall (NGFW)? (Choose two.)
A. Proxy-based inspection
B. Certificate inspection
C. Flow-based inspection
D. Full Content inspection
Correct Answer: AC
Question 13:
Refer to the exhibit.
In the network shown in the exhibit, the web client cannot connect to the HTTP web server. The administrator runs the FortiGate built-in sniffer and gets the output as shown in the exhibit.
What should the administrator do next to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Run a sniffer on the web server.
B. Capture the traffic using an external sniffer connected to port 1.
C. Execute another sniffer in the FortiGate, this time with the filter “host 10.0.1.10”
D. Execute a debug flow.
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
Which of the following SD-WAN load calancing method uses interface weight value to distribute traffic? (Choose two.)
What types of traffic and attacks can be blocked by a web application firewall (WAF) profile? (Choose three.)
A. Traffic to botnet servers
B. Traffic to inappropriate websites
C. Server information disclosure attacks
D. Credit card data leaks
E. SQL injection attacks
Correct Answer: CDE
…
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Number of exam questions
Exam name
Exam code
15
Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure
AZ-204
Question 1:
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals.
Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.
You are developing an Azure solution to collect point-of-sale (POS) device data from 2,000 stores located throughout the world. A single device can produce 2 megabytes (MB) of data every 24 hours. Each store location has one to five devices that send data.
You must store the device data in Azure Blob storage. Device data must be correlated based on a device identifier. Additional stores are expected to open in the future.
You need to implement a solution to receive the device data.
Solution: Provision an Azure Event Grid. Configure event filtering to evaluate the device identifier.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead use an Azure Service Bus, which is used for order processing and financial transactions.
Note: An event is a lightweight notification of a condition or a state change. Event hubs are usually used to react to status changes.
A company is developing a Node.js web app. The web app code is hosted in a GitHub repository located at https://github.com/TailSpinToys/webapp.
The web app must be reviewed before it is moved to production. You must deploy the initial code release to a deployment slot named review.
You need to create the web app and deploy the code.
How should you complete the commands? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: New-AzResourceGroup
The New-AzResourceGroup cmdlet creates an Azure resource group. Box 2: New-AzAppServicePlan The New-AzAppServicePlan cmdlet creates an Azure App Service plan in a given location
Box 3: New-AzWebApp
The New-AzWebApp cmdlet creates an Azure Web App in a given resource group Box 4: New-AzWebAppSlot The New-AzWebAppSlot cmdlet creates an Azure Web App slot.
You are building a website that uses Azure Blob storage for data storage. You configure the Azure Blob storage lifecycle to move all blobs to the archive tier after 30 days.
Customers have requested a service-level agreement (SLA) for viewing data older than 30 days.
You need to document the minimum SLA for data recovery.
Which SLA should you use?
A. at least two days
B. between one and 15 hours
C. at least one day
D. between zero and 60 minutes
Correct Answer: B
The archive access tier has the lowest storage cost. But it has higher data retrieval costs compared to the hot and cool tiers. Data in the archive tier can take several hours to retrieve depending on the priority of the rehydration. For small objects, a high-priority rehydrate may retrieve the object from the archive in under 1 hour.
A company is developing a gaming platform. Users can join teams to play online and see leaderboards that include player statistics. The solution includes an entity named Team.
You plan to implement an Azure Redis Cache instance to improve the efficiency of data operations for entities that rarely change.
You need to invalidate the cache when team data is changed.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
You need to configure Azure Service Bus to Event Grid integration.
Which Azure Service Bus settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Premium Service Bus can now emit events to Event Grid when there are messages in a queue or a subscription when no receivers are present.
You can create Event Grid subscriptions to your Service Bus namespaces, listen to these events, and then react to the events by starting a receiver.
With this feature, you can use Service Bus in reactive programming models.
To enable the feature, you need the following items:
A Service Bus Premium namespace with at least one Service Bus queue or a Service Bus topic with at least one subscription. Contributor access to the Service Bus namespace.
You are maintaining an existing application that uses an Azure Blob GPv1 Premium storage account. Data older than three months is rarely used.
Data newer than three months must be available immediately. Data older than a year must be saved but does not need to be available immediately.
You need to configure the account to support a lifecycle management rule that moves blob data to archive storage for data not modified in the last year.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: Upgrade the storage account to GPv2
Object storage data tiering between hot, cool, and archive is supported in Blob Storage and General Purpose v2 (GPv2) accounts. General Purpose v1 (GPv1) accounts don’t support tiering.
You can easily convert your existing GPv1 or Blob Storage accounts to GPv2 accounts through the Azure portal.
Step 2: Copy the data to be archived to a Standard GPv2 storage account and then delete the data from the original storage account
Step 3: Change the storage account access tier from hot to cool
Note Hot – Optimized for storing data that is accessed frequently.
Cool – Optimized for storing data that is infrequently accessed and stored for at least 30 days.
Archive – Optimized for storing data that is rarely accessed and stored for at least 180 days with flexible latency requirements, on the order of hours.
Only the hot and cool access tiers can be set at the account level. The archive access tier can only be set at the blob level.
You plan to create a Docker image that runs as an ASP.NET Core application named ContosoApp. You have a setup script named setup script.ps1 and a series of application files including ContosoApp.dll.
You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:
Call setup script.ps1 when the container is built.
Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts.
The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1 are stored.
Which four commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: WORKDIR /apps/ContosoApp
Step 2: COPY ./The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1 are stored.
Step 3: EXPOSE ./ContosApp/ /app/ContosoApp
Step 4: CMD powershell ./setupScript.ps1
ENTRYPOINT [“dotnet”, “ContosoApp.dll”]
You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:
You are developing an Azure Cosmos DB solution by using the Azure Cosmos DB SQL API. The data includes millions of documents. Each document may contain hundreds of properties.
The properties of the documents do not contain distinct values for partitioning. Azure Cosmos DB must scale individual containers in the database to meet the performance needs of the application by spreading the workload evenly across all partitions over time.
You need to select a partition key.
Which two partition keys can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a single property value that does not appear frequently in the documents
B. a value containing the collection name
C. a single property value that appears frequently in the documents
D. a concatenation of multiple property values with a random suffix appended
E. a hash suffix appended to a property value
Correct Answer: DE
You can form a partition key by concatenating multiple property values into a single artificial partition key property. These keys are referred to as synthetic keys.
Another possible strategy to distribute the workload more evenly is to append a random number at the end of the partition key value. When you distribute items in this way, you can perform parallel write operations across partitions.
Note: It\’s the best practice to have a partition key with many distinct values, such as hundreds or thousands.
The goal is to distribute your data and workload evenly across the items associated with these partition key values. If such a property doesn’t exist in your data, you can construct a synthetic partition key.
How should you configure the app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Scenario: Shipping Function app: Implement secure function endpoints by using app-level security and include Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Box 1: Function
Box 2: JSON-based Token (JWT)
Azure AD uses JSON-based tokens (JWTs) that contain claims
Box 3: HTTP
How a web app delegates sign-in to Azure AD and obtains a token
User authentication happens via the browser. The OpenID protocol uses standard HTTP protocol messages.
You need to change definitions, add new logic, and optimize these apps on a regular basis.
What should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct functionalities. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Enterprise Integration Pack
For business-to-business (B2B) solutions and seamless communication between organizations, you can build automated scalable enterprise integration workflows by using the Enterprise Integration Pack (EIP) with Azure Logic Apps.
Box 2: Code View Editor
Edit JSON – Azure portal
1.
Sign in to the Azure portal.
2.
From the left menu, choose All services. In the search box, find “logic apps”, and then from the results, select your logic app.
3.
On your logic app\’s menu, under Development Tools, select Logic App Code View.
4.
The Code View editor opens and shows your logic app definition in JSON format.
You are developing an Azure App Service hosted ASP.NET Core web app to deliver video-on-demand streaming media.
You enable an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) Standard for the web endpoint. Customer videos are downloaded from the web app by using the following example URL:http//www.contoso.com/content.p4?quality=1
All media content must expire from the cache after one hour. Customer videos with varying quality must be delivered to the closest regional point of presence (POP) node.
You need to configure Azure CDN caching rules.
Which options should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Override
Override: Ignore the origin-provided cache duration; use the provided cache duration instead. This will not override cache-control: no-cache.
Set if missing: Honor origin-provided cache-directive headers, if they exist; otherwise, use the provided cache duration.
Incorrect:
Bypass cache: Do not cache and ignore origin-provided cache-directive headers.
Box 2: 1 hour
All media content must expire from the cache after one hour.
Box 3: Cache every unique URL
Cache every unique URL: In this mode, each request with a unique URL, including the query string, is treated as a unique asset with its own cache. For example, the response from the origin server for a request for example. ashx?q=test1 is
cached at the POP node and returned for subsequent caches with the same query string. A request for example.ashx?q=test2 is cached as a separate asset with its own time-to-live setting.
Incorrect Answers:
Bypass caching for query strings: In this mode, requests with query strings are not cached at the CDN POP node. The POP node retrieves the asset directly from the origin server and passes it to the requestor with each request.
Ignore query strings: Default mode. In this mode, the CDN point-of-presence (POP) node passes the query strings from the requestor to the origin server on the first request and caches the asset. All subsequent requests for the asset that are served from the POP ignore the query strings until the cached asset expires.
You are building a traffic monitoring system that monitors traffic along six highways. The system produces time series analysis-based reports for each highway. Data from traffic sensors are stored in Azure Event Hub.
Traffic data is consumed by four departments. Each department has an Azure Web App that displays the time-series-based reports and contains a WebJob that processes the incoming data from Event Hub. All Web Apps run on App Service Plans with three instances.
Data throughout must be maximized. Latency must be minimized.
You need to implement the Azure Event Hub.
Which settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: 6
The number of partitions is specified at creation and must be between 2 and 32.
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In the field of cryptanalysis, what is meant by a “rubber-hose” attack?
A. Forcing the targeted keystream through a hardware-accelerated device such as an ASIC.
B. A backdoor placed into a cryptographic algorithm by its creator.
C. Extraction of cryptographic secrets through coercion or torture.
D. Attempting to decrypt ciphertext by making logical assumptions about the contents of the original plaintext.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 2:
When considering how an attacker may exploit a web server, what is web server footprinting?
A. When an attacker implements a vulnerability scanner to identify weaknesses
B. When an attacker creates a complete profile of the site\’s external links and file structures
C. When an attacker gathers system-level data, including account details and server names
D. When an attacker uses a brute-force attack to crack a web-server password
Correct Answer: B
New Question 3:
When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast.
He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.
What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?
A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.
B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.
C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.
D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 4:
what are common files on a web server that can be misconfigured and provide useful Information for a hacker such as verbose error messages?
A. httpd.conf
B. administration.config
C. idq.dll
D. php.ini
Correct Answer: D
The php.ini file may be a special file for PHP. it\’s where you declare changes to your PHP settings.
The server is already configured with standard settings for PHP, which your site will use by default.
Unless you would like to vary one or more settings, there\’s no got to create or modify a php.ini file. If you\’d wish to make any changes to settings, please do so through the MultiPHP INI Editor.
New Question 5:
What is the common name for a vulnerability disclosure program opened by companies In platforms such as HackerOne?
A. Vulnerability hunting program
B. Bug bounty program
C. White-hat hacking program
D. Ethical hacking program
Correct Answer: B
Bug bounty programs allow independent security researchers to report bugs to companies and receive rewards or compensation.
These bugs area unit sometimes security exploits and vulnerabilities, although they will additionally embody method problems, hardware flaws, and so on.
The reports area unit is usually created through a program traveled by an associate degree freelance third party (like Bugcrowd or HackerOne).
The companies can get wind of (and run) a program curated to the organization\’s wants. Programs are also non-public (invite-only) wherever reports area unit unbroken confidential to the organization or public (where anyone will sign in and join). they will happen over a collection timeframe or without a stopping date (though the second possibility is a lot of common).
Who uses bug bounty programs? Many major organizations use bug bounties as an area of their security program, together with AOL, Android, Apple, Digital Ocean, and Goldman Sachs. you\’ll read an inventory of all the programs offered by major bug bounty suppliers, Bugcrowd and HackerOne, at these links. Why do corporations use bug bounty programs?
Bug bounty programs provide corporations the flexibility to harness an outsized cluster of hackers so as to seek out bugs in their code.
This gives them access to a bigger variety of hackers or testers than they\’d be able to access on a one-on-one basis.
It {can also|also will|can even|may also|may} increase the probabilities that bugs area unit found and reported to them before malicious hackers can exploit them.
It may also be an honest publicity alternative for a firm. As bug bounties became a lot of common, having a bug bounty program will signal to the general public and even regulators that a corporation incorporates a mature security program.
This trend is likely to continue, as some have begun to see bug bounty programs as a business normal that all companies ought to invest in.
Why do researchers and hackers participate in bug bounty programs? Finding and news bugs via a bug bounty program may end up in each money bonus and recognition.
In some cases, it will be a good thanks to showing real-world expertise once you are looking for employment, or will even facilitate introducing you to parents on the protection team within a company.
This can be full-time income for a few of us, income to supplement employment, or a way to point out your skills and find a full-time job.
It may also be fun! it is a nice (legal) probability to check out your skills against huge companies and government agencies.
What area unit the disadvantages of a bug bounty program for independent researchers and hackers? A lot of hackers participate in these varieties of programs, and it will be tough to form a major quantity of cash on the platform. In order to say the reward, the hacker has to be the primary person to submit the bug to the program. meaning that in applying, you may pay weeks searching for a bug to use, solely to be the person to report it and build no cash.
Roughly ninety-seven participants on major bug bounty platforms haven\’t sold-out a bug. In fact, a 2019 report from HackerOne confirmed that out of quite three hundred,000 registered users, solely around two.5% received a bounty in their time on the platform.
Essentially, most hackers are not creating a lot of cash on these platforms, and really few square measure creating enough to switch a full-time wage (plus they do not have advantages like vacation days, insurance, and retirement planning).
What square measures the disadvantages of bug bounty programs for organizations? These programs square measure solely helpful if the program ends up in the companies realizing issues that they weren\’t able to find themselves (and if they\’ll fix those problems)!
If the company is not mature enough to be able to quickly rectify known problems, a bug bounty program is not the right alternative for the company.
Also, any bug bounty program is probably going to draw in an outsized range of submissions, several of which can not be high-quality submissions. a corporation must be ready to cope with the exaggerated volume of alerts, and also the risk of a coffee signal to noise magnitude relation (essentially that it\’s probably that they\’re going to receive quite a few unhelpful reports for each useful report).
Additionally, if the program does not attract enough participants (or participants with the incorrect talent set, and so participants are not able to establish any bugs), the program is not useful for the companies. The overwhelming majority of bug bounty participants consider website vulnerabilities (72%, per HackerOne), whereas solely a number (3.5%) value more highly to seek for package vulnerabilities.
This is probably because of the actual fact that hacking in operation systems (like network hardware and memory) needs a big quantity of extremely specialized experience. this implies that firms may even see vital come-on investment for bug bounties on websites, and not for alternative applications, notably those that need specialized experience.
This conjointly implies that organizations which require to look at AN application or website within a selected time frame may not need to rely on a bug bounty as there is no guarantee of once or if they receive reports.
Finally, it is often probably risky to permit freelance researchers to try to penetrate your network. this could end in the public speech act of bugs, inflicting name harm within the limelight (which could end in individuals not eager to purchase the organizations\’ product or service), or speech act of bugs to additional malicious third parties, United Nations agency may use this data to focus on the organization.
New Question 6:
An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption.
The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected.
After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages.
What is the attack performed in the above scenario?
A. Timing-based attack
B. Side-channel attack
C. Downgrade security attack
D. Cache-based attack
Correct Answer: B
New Question 7:
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 1 of the OSI model.
B. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model.
C. Packet Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model.
D. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 8:
Ralph, a professional hacker, targeted Jane, who had recently bought new systems for her company. After a few days, Ralph contacted Jane while masquerading as a legitimate customer support executive, informing her that her systems need to be serviced for proper functioning and that customer support will send a computer technician. Jane promptly replied positively.
Ralph entered Jane\’s company using this opportunity and gathered sensitive information by scanning terminals for passwords, searching for important documents on desks, and rummaging bins.
What is the type of attack technique Ralph used on jane?
A. Dumpster diving
B. Eavesdropping
C. Shoulder surfing
D. impersonation
Correct Answer: D
New Question 9:
Leverock Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization.
From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies.
He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks.
In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks.
What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?
A. Strategic threat intelligence
B. Tactical threat intelligence
C. Operational threat intelligence
D. Technical threat intelligence
Correct Answer: C
New Question 10:
Which of the following algorithms can be used to guarantee the integrity of messages being sent, in transit, or stored?
A. symmetric algorithms
B. asymmetric algorithms
C. hashing algorithms
D. integrity algorithms
Correct Answer: C
New Question 11:
Don, a student, came across a gaming app in a third-party app store and Installed it.
Subsequently, all the legitimate apps on his smartphone were replaced by deceptive applications that appeared legitimate. He also received many advertisements on his smartphone after Installing the app.
What is the attack performed on Don in the above scenario?
A. SMS phishing attack
B. SIM card attack
C. Agent Smith attack
D. Clickjacking
Correct Answer: D
Clickjacking is an attack that tricks a user into clicking a webpage element that is invisible or disguised as another element. this will cause users to unwittingly download malware, visit malicious sites, provide credentials or sensitive information, transfer money, or purchase products online.
Typically, clickjacking is performed by displaying an invisible page or HTML element, inside an iframe, on top of the page the user sees.
The user believes they\’re clicking the visible page but actually they\’re clicking an invisible element within the additional page transposed on top of it.
The invisible page might be a malicious page, or a legitimate page the user didn\’t shall visit. for instance, a page on the user\’s banking site that authorizes the transfer of cash.
There are several variations of the clickjacking attack, such as Likejacking a way during which the Facebook “Like” button is manipulated, causing users to “like” a page they really didn\’t shall like.
Cursorjacking is a UI redressing technique that changes the cursor for the position the user perceives to a different position.
Cursorjacking relies on vulnerabilities in Flash and therefore the Firefox browser, which has now been fixed. Clickjacking attack example1.
The attacker creates a beautiful page that promises to offer the user a free trip to Tahiti.2. within the background the attacker checks if the user is logged into his banking site and if so, loads the screen that permits the transfer of funds, using query parameters to insert the attacker\’s bank details into the shape .3. The bank transfer page is displayed in an invisible iframe above the free gift page, with the “Confirm Transfer” button exactly aligned over the “Receive Gift” button visible to the user.4. The user visits the page and clicks the “Book My Free Trip” button.5. actually, the user is clicking on the invisible iframe and has clicked the “Confirm Transfer” button.
Funds are transferred to the attacker.6. The user is redirected to a page with information about the free gift (not knowing what happened within the background). This example illustrates that, during a clickjacking attack, the malicious action (on the bank website, during this case) can\’t be traced back to the attacker because the user performed it while being legitimately signed into their own account. Clickjacking mitigation there are two general ways to defend against clickjacking: Client-side methods are the foremost common is named Frame Busting. Client-side methods are often effective in some cases but are considered to not be a best practice because they will be easily bypassed. Server-side methods the foremost common is X-Frame-Options. Server-side methods are recommended by security experts as efficient thanks to defending against clickjacking.
New Question 12:
Bob, your senior colleague, has sent you a mail regarding a deal with one of the clients. You are requested to accept the offer and you oblige. After 2 days, Bab denies that he had ever sent a mail.
What do you want to “”know”” to prove to yourself that it was Bob who had sent a mail?
A. Non-Repudiation
B. Integrity
C. Authentication
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: A
New Question 13:
John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization.
In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the victims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation.
What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?
A. Proxy scanner
B. Agent-based scanner
C. Network-based scanner
D. Cluster scanner
Correct Answer: B
Knowing when to include agents in your vulnerability management processes isn\’t an easy decision. Below are common use cases for agent-based vulnerability scanning to assist you to build out your combined scanning strategy.
Intermittent or Irregular Connectivity: Vulnerability management teams are now tasked with scanning devices that access the company network remotely using public or home-based Wi-Fi connections.
These connections are often unreliable and intermittent leading to missed network-based scans. Fortunately, the scanning frequency of agents doesn\’t requires a network connection.
The agent detects when the device is back online, sending scan data when it\’s ready to communicate with the VM platform. Connecting Non-Corporate Devices to Corporate Networks: With the increased use of private devices, company networks are more exposed to malware and infections thanks to limited IT and security teams\’ control and visibility.
Agent-based scanning gives security teams insight into weaknesses on non-corporate endpoints, keeping them informed about professional hackers as potential attack vectors in order that they can take appropriate action.
Endpoints Residing Outside of Company Networks: Whether company-issued or BYOD, remote assets frequently hook up with the web outside of traditional network bounds. An agent that resides on remote endpoints conducts regular, authenticated scans checking out system changes and unpatched software.
The results are then sent back to the VM platform and combined with other scan results for review, prioritization, and mitigation planning.
New Question 14:
Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market.
To launch the attack process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about ONS servers and to identify the hosts connected to the target network.
He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, and computer names. IP addresses. DNS records, and network Whois records.
He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?
A. Knative
B. zANTI
C. Towelroot
D. Bluto
Correct Answer: D
New Question 15:
Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state.
He attempted to use different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with one special command-line utility.
Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs?
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New Question 1:
DRAG DROP
A failure occurs on the network between two BFD and OSPF neighbors. Drag and drop the protocol actions from the left into the correct order on the right.
Drag and drop the components from the left onto the descriptions on the right that indicate what occurs to Fibre Channel fabric when that component fails.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 8:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the technologies from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 9:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the SAN components from the left onto the correct design considerations on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 10:
DRAG DROP
Drag the requirements from the left onto the correct policy types on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 11:
What is the advantage of Cisco HyperFlex Edge as compared to Cisco HyperFlex Standard Clusters?
A. Cisco Intersight automatically creates an invisible cloud witness.
B. Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis provides SEEPROM connectivity to solve split-brain scenarios.
C. Cisco UCS Manager provides service profile portability across nodes.
D. Cisco HyperFlex Edge provides native container support through the KVM hypervisor.
A set of virtual machines must be live migrated from a data center to a disaster recovery site. The data center and disaster recovery sites are connected through an Inter-Pod Network topology. The gateway address of the virtual machine is the same across the data center and disaster recovery. Which Cisco Nexus feature supports this requirement?
A. VXLAN EVPN
B. FabricPath
C. FHRR
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: A
New Question 13:
Which two vSphere features must be included in the design of a Cisco HyperFlex systems stretched cluster? (Choose two.)
An engineer must deploy a Cisco HyperFlex system at two data centers. For redundancy reasons, the setup must achieve data protection in case of an entire site failure. The data must be available on both sites at all times to keep the
recovery time objective to a minimum.
Which Cisco HyperFlex deployment model meets these requirements?
A. ROBO cluster
B. stretched cluster
C. edge with four nodes or more
D. standard with eight nodes
Correct Answer: B
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Verify the answer at the end of the article
Question 1:
What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?
A. Cisco IM and Presence node
B. Cisco Unified Border Element
C. Cisco Expressway
D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server
Question 2:
A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?
A. Attempt Forward routing rule
B. Alternate Extensions
C. Alternate Names
D. Mobile User
Question 3:
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?
A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.
B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.
C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.
D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.
Question 4:
An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)
A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.
B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.
C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.
D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.
E. Voice packets are classified and marked.
Question 5:
A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?
A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end user
C. Active Directory
D. Cisco IM and Presence
Question 6:
What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?
A. Video is typically a variable bit rate.
B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements.
C. Video is typically a constant bit rate.
D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.
Question 7:
An engineer encounters third-party devices that do not support Cisco Discovery Protocol. What must be configured on the network to allow device discovery?
A. LACP
B. TFTP
C. LLDP
D. SNMP
Question 8:
An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with their own devices. One requirement is to keep that as simple as possible for end users. Which infrastructure element achieves these goals?
A. Cisco Express Mobility
B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco Unified Instant Messaging and Presence
Question 9:
On which Cisco Unified Communications Manager nodes can the TFTP service be enabled?
A. any node
B. any two nodes
C. only nodes that have Cisco Unified CM service enabled
D. any subscriber nodes
You can configure the TFTP service on the first node or a subsequent node, but usually, you should configure it on the first node. For small systems, the TFTP server can coexist with a Cisco Unified Communications Manager on the same server.
Question 10:
Which issue causes slips on a PRI?
A. incorrect clock source
B. incorrect encapsulation
C. incorrectly configured time zone
D. change in the line code
Question 11:
Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?
A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit. This INVITE is sent to an endpoint that only supports G729. What must be done for this call to succeed?
A. Nothing: both sides support G.729.
B. Add a transcoder that supports G711ulaw and G.729.
C. Add a media termination point that supports G.711ulaw and G.729.
D. Nothing: both sides support payload type 101.
Question 13:
Which action prevents toll fraud in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Implement toll fraud restriction in the Cisco IOS router.
B. Implement route patterns in Cisco Unified CM.
C. Allow off-net to off-net transfers.
D. Configure ad hoc conference restriction.
Question 14:
A user forwards a corporate number to an international number. What are two methods to prevent this forwarded call? (Choose two.)
A. Set the Call Classification to OnNet for the international route pattern.
B. Block international dial patterns in the SIP trunk CSS.
C. Configure a Forced Authorization Code on the international route pattern.
D. Set Call Forward All CSS to restrict international dial patterns.
E. Check Route Next Hop By Calling Party Number on the international route pattern.
Question 15:
Calls are being delivered to the end user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?
A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway
……
Verify answer:
Numbers:
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7
Q8
Q9
Q10
Q11
Q12
Q13
Q14
Q15
Answers:
C
B
C
AE
C
A
C
B
B
A
D
B
D
BC
D
CCNP Collaboration certification includes: The core exam and Concentration exams, Cisco CLCOR certification exam belongs to the Core exam (350-501 SPCOR) and is unique.
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QUESTION 1
If balancing policies on a Huawei OceanStor 9000 are disabled, balancing tasks are not generated in such scenarios as adding, deleting, and disabling nodes, adding disks, disk pre-failure, and slow disks. If balancing policies are enabled after node deletion, however, data balancing is automatically implemented.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Huawei hyper-converged storage supports parallel and fast data reconstruction. Data is fragmented in the resource pool. A disk failure triggers automatic and parallel reconstruction of the actual data by the entire resource pool without requiring hot spare disks.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following sequences is correct about the small I/O to write cache scenario of the multi-level cache technology of Huawei distributed storage?
(1) Data is written to write-ahead logging (WAL) based on the SSD cache and a write completion message is returned to the host.
(2) When the memory write cache reaches a certain watermark, data starts to be flushed disks.
(3) Data is written to the write cache based on random access memory (RAM).
(4) Small I/Os are written to the SSD cache of the local node first. After small I/Os are aggregated into a large I/O, the large I/O is written to an HDD.
A. (3) (1) (2) (4) B. (3) (2) (1) (4) C. (1) (2) (3) (4) D. (3) (4) (1) (2)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about Huawei OceanStor 1880 V5 Kunpeng is correct?
A. Supports front-end and back-end interconnect I/O modules and uses a fully interconnected hardware architecture.
B. Supports SmartMatrix 3.0 to balance cache mirroring and service load.
C. Supports upgrade with a single FC link without being perceived by host multipathing.
D. Tolerates failure of three out of four controllers.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
At the time of creation, a SmartThin LUN does not occupy storage space.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
A live gaming platform uses the FlashLink multi-core technology of Huawei OceanStor all-flash storage for its services. Which of the following describes core grouping in CPUs?
A. A request is processed by one core until its completion. Cores are lock-free to avoid frequent switchovers among the cores.
B. Read/write I/Os are deployed in different core groups from other types of I/Os to avoid mutual interference.
C. The controller works with SSDs to identify hot and cold data in the system, improve garbage collection efficiency, and prolong the service life of SSDs.
D. vNodes are bound to CPUs to reduce the overheads for scheduling and transmission across CPUs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A company deploys a Huawei distributed storage system to build a new online transaction system. The company deploys database application software of the transaction system on virtual machines (VMs). Multiple data volumes are mounted to VM. What are the best methods to ensure data restoration reliability?
A. All volume snapshots must be created at the same time. B. A snapshot and a consistency snapshot comply with the dependency consistency principle. C. Multiple data volumes used by the database do not have to use the consistency snapshot. D. Different data volumes need to be restored in sequence.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Assuming a setup with 1 host (A), 1 controller (B), 1 switch (C), and 1 disk enclosure (D). The correct order of powering on in a new installation is:
A. A-B-C-D B. D-C-B-A C. A-C-B-D D. D-B-C-A
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
In storage planning and design, which of the following is NOT involved in service planning?
A. Basic service B. Capacity planning C. Value-added function D. Network planning
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements about the bucket is incorrect?
A. A bucket is a container for storing objects. It can be considered as a directory that can be accessed through the network.
B. Buckets can be nested, thereby avoiding complicated container structure.
C. The function of a bucket is similar to that of a container. Both of them can be accessed through the network.
D. Lifecycle management of a bucket means automatically deleting objects from buckets after a certain period of time-based on configuration rules without client intervention.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A colleague suggests using SmartMigration to improve write performance on certain LUNs. This is:
A. Not possible in any situation. B. Possible in all situations. C. Possible in some situations. D. Only a temporary solution.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Huawei OceanStor Distributed Storage must be equipped with a minimum of three nodes that can vary in type.
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