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1Y0-A26 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator is working with a production resource pool and a test resource pool. The administrator needs to move three virtual machines from the test resource pool into the production resource pool. Which action must the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. Drag the three virtual machines from the test resource pool to the production resource pool.
B. Convert the three virtual machines to templates and deploy the templates into the production resource pool.
C. Copy the three virtual machines and import the copies of the virtual machines into the production resource pool.
D. Export the three virtual machines as backups and import the virtual machines into the production resource pool.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator is creating a vDisk image of a physical Windows server using XenConvert. This vDisk is going to be used by multiple target devices in Standard Image mode. Which two steps does the administrator need to take to prepare the Windows server for physical- to-virtual conversion? (Choose two.)
A. Disable Windows Autoplay.
B. Enable Windows Automount.
C. Put the server in Standby mode.
D. Format the hard disk drive of the server.
Correct Answer: A, B

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An administrator is creating a vDisk image of a physical Windows server using XenConvert. This vDisk is going to be used by multiple target devices in Standard Image mode. What does the administrator need to do during the physical-to-virtual conversion to increase the vDisk performance?
A. SysPrep the vDisk.
B. Optimize the vDisk.
C. Run the Windows server in Safe mode.
D. Defragment the physical hard disk before conversion.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two CLI commands will correctly restart a virtual machine? 1Y0-A26 dumps (Choose two.)
A. xe vm-start vm=
B. xe vm-reboot vm=
C. xe vm-reboot uuid=
D. xe vm-reset-powerstate vm= -force
Correct Answer: B, C

QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator manages four XenServer hosts in a resource pool. To increase capacity, the administrator purchased one new host, which is a different CPU model, but from the same manufacturer. The administrator CANNOT add the new server to the existing pool. What does the administrator need to use to force the host to join the existing pool?
A. Command line
B. Maintenance Mode
C. Add to Pool Wizard
D. Add Server Wizard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An administrator needs to add a new server to an existing pool in a remote datacenter. The administrator has NO access to XenCenter. Which command does the administrator need to use to prepare a XenServer host before adding it to a heterogeneous resource pool?
A. host-cpu-list
B. host-sync-data
C. host-param-set
D. host-set-cpu-features
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
An administrator needs to create a resource pool of XenServer hosts. Which two options are required of each host to create a homogeneous resource pool? (Choose two.)
A. Shared storage
B. Same vendor and CPU type
C. XenServer Advanced License or higher
D. Same version of XenServer and hotfixes installed
Correct Answer: B, D

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a single resource pool containing six XenServer hosts. All hosts have the same CPU manufacturer, but different CPU model.
Which two host parameters need to be the same across all hosts to create a heterogeneous resource pool? (Choose two.)
A. Time zone
B. Usable memory
C. Installed hotfixes
D. XenServer version
Correct Answer: C, D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A XenServer pool consists of two XenServer hosts that each have four network interface cards (NICs). The first two NICs form a bond that is used for management and virtual machine network traffic. 1Y0-A26 dumps The other two NICs are unused. The administrator notices that the system is using all available network bandwidth and iSCSI disk performance is being affected. Which network type could the administrator create to move the storage traffic to one of the unused NICs?
A. Bonded
B. Management
C. Cross-server private
D. Single-server private
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: In preparation for adding a new iSCSI SAN to the environment, an administrator needs to separate the storage traffic from the XenServer management traffic. The host is connected to the iSCSI SAN on the 192.168.30.0/24 subnet using NIC 3. What must the administrator create to separate the storage network traffic?
A. A bonded network
B. An external network
C. A management interface
D. A single-server private network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: An administrator needs to upgrade the current XenServer environment to version 6.0. The current XenServer environment consists of 20 production virtual machines running mission- critical applications. When is it appropriate for the administrator to use the rolling pool upgrade wizard in this environment?
A. When upgrading from XenServer 5.5 or earlier
B. When high availability is enabled in the current environment
C. When virtual machines in the current environment need to keep running
D. When the current environment contains a SAN adapter for the StorageLink storage repository
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to upgrade the existing XenServer pool consisting of four hosts to version 6.0. When can the administrator use the rolling pool upgrade wizard?
A. When upgrading from XenServer 5.6 or later
B. When XenServer workload balancing is enabled
C. When the XenServer installation media is unavailable
D. When there are at least three XenServer hosts in the pool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Scenario: An administrator needs to add memory modules to all hosts in a pool. The pool consists of three XenServer hosts with high availability enabled. High availability is able to tolerate one host failure. Which action must the administrator take to ensure that another host will be assigned as pool master before the current pool master memory is upgraded?
A. Disable multipathing.
B. Put the XenServer host into maintenance mode.
C. Run the xe host-emergency-ha-disable command.
D. Run the xe pool-emergency-transition-to-master command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
An administrator needs to perform maintenance on a XenServer host that is the pool master and that has high availability enabled. Which two commands would the administrator have to use to prepare the XenServer host for maintenance? (Choose two.)
A. host-disable
B. host-evacuate
C. host-shutdown-agent
D. host-management-disable
E. host-emergency-ha-disable
Correct Answer: A, B

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An administrator needs to change the pool master to prepare for maintenance activities during the evening. High availability is currently enabled. Using the XenCenter Console, what must the administrator do to change the pool master?
A. Disable high availability.
B. Configure workload balancing.
C. Enable virtual machine protection policy.
D. Enter maintenance mode on the pool master.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Scenario: An administrator realizes that the XenServer pool master has experienced an unrecoverable issue and crashed over the weekend. High availability is currently disabled. 1Y0-A26 dumps
Which command must the administrator run on the XenServer CLI of a pool member to recover the XenServer pool?
A. xe pool-ha-enable
B. xe pool-recover-slaves
C. xe pool-designate-new-master
D. xe pool-emergency-transition-to-master
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator needs to install Windows Server 2008 R2 on a new virtual machine. The Windows Server 2008 R2 ISO file is located on a Windows share. Which storage repository does the administrator need to create to be able to mount the ISO file to the new virtual machine?
A. CIFS
B. iSCSI
C. NFS ISO
D. StorageLink
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A XenServer pool consists of two XenServer hosts. Both hosts have three network interface cards (NICs). One NIC will be used to connect to a new shared storage LUN. The administrator needs to be able to migrate virtual machines from one XenServer host to the other. What does the administrator need to select in XenCenter to make this LUN available to both XenServers?
A. CIFS
B. NFS ISO
C. Hardware HBA
D. Software iSCSI
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Scenario: A XenServer host has a Fibre Channel adapter which is connected to the corporate SAN. The SAN Administrator created a new LUN and presented it to the XenServer host. Which storage repository type does the administrator need to use to be able to create virtual machines on the LUN?
A. Local LVM
B. EXT3 VHD
C. Hardware HBA
D. Software iSCSI
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Scenario: An administrator is deploying a XenDesktop environment and would like to make use of XenServer IntelliCache on an existing host to improve performance. The environment is configured with local, iSCSI, and NFS ISO storage repositories (SRs).
NO virtual machines are on the host. What must the administrator do before IntelliCache can be enabled?
A. Create a new LUN on the iSCSI SR and enable thin provisioning.
B. Convert the existing NFS ISO SR to NFS VHD with thin provisioning enabled.
C. Destroy the existing LVM local SR and replace it with a thin provisioned EXT3 SR.
D. Format the existing iSCSI SR with the EXT2 file system and enable thin provisioning.
Answer: C

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LX0-104 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands is used to rotate, compress, and mail system logs?
A. rotatelog
B. striplog
C. syslogd –rotate
D. logrotate
E. logger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager?
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Depending on the host\’s configuration, which of the following files can be used to turn on and off network services running on a host? LX0-104 dumps (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. /etc/profile
B. /etc/services
C. /etc/inetd.conf
D. /etc/xinetd.conf
E. /etc/host.conf
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands shows the current color depth of the X Server?
A. xcd
B. xcdepth
C. xwininfo
D. xcolordepth
E. cat /etc/X11
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is not contained in the locale setting of the operating system?
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Why should a regular user edit his personal crontab by using the command crontab instead of just editing his crontab file manually?
A. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a common database and must be extracted before editing.
B. Because crontab starts the cron daemon in case it is not running due to no other crontab entries existing.
C. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a special directory which is maintained by the cron daemon and not writable for regular users.
D. Because crontab collects information about all users crontabs and recommends similar commands used by other users of the system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a legacy program provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line?
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
After issuing:
function myfunction { echo $1 $2 ; }
in Bash, which output does:
myfunction A B C
Produce?
A. A B
B. A B C
C. A C
D. B C
E. C B A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the dig command? LX0-104 dumps
A. It can be used as a tool for querying DNS servers.
B. It can be used for searching through indexed file content.
C. It can be used to look for open ports on a system.
D. It can be used to ping all known hosts on the current subnet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In order to discover the link layer address of the device that owns a specific IPv4 or IPv6 address, which mechanism is used?
A. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use ARP.
B. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use Neighbor Discovery.
C. IPv4 uses ARP while IPv6 uses Neighbor Discovery.
D. IPv4 uses Neighbor Discovery while IPv6 uses ARP.
E. Both IPv4 and IPv6 can use either ARP or Neighbor Discovery depending on the network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Postfix
B. Procmail
C. Sendmail
D. Exim
E. SMTPd
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following commands gets the GnuPG public key with the id 63B4835B from the keyserver example.com?
A. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –recv-key 63B4835B
B. gpg –search-key hkp://[email protected]
C. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –get-key 63B4835B
D. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –add-key 63B4835B
E. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –key 63B4835B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To prevent a specific user from scheduling tasks with at, what should the administrator do?
A. Add the specific user to /etc/at.allow file.
B. Add the specific user to [deny] section in the /etc/atd.conf file.
C. Add the specific user to /etc/at.deny file.
D. Add the specific user to nojobs group.
E. Run the following: atd –deny [user].
Correct Answer: C

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New CompTIA Security+ JK0-018 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following application security testing techniques is implemented when an automated system generates random input data?
A. Fuzzing
B. XSRF
C. Hardening
D. Input validation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following can be used by a security administrator to successfully recover a user’s forgotten password on a password protected file?
A. Cognitive password
B. Password sniffing
C. Brute force
D. Social engineering
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A security administrator wants to check user password complexity. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use?
A. Password history
B. Password logging
C. Password cracker
D. Password hashing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Certificates are used for: (Select TWO).
A. Client authentication.
B. WEP encryption.
C. Access control lists.
D. Code signing.
E. Password hashing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a hardware based encryption device?
A. EFS
B. TrueCrypt
C. TPM
D. SLE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?
A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C. Validating user input in web applications
D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
JK0-018 dumps Which of the following MOST interferes with network-based detection techniques?
A. Mime-encoding
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. Anonymous email accounts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A certificate authority takes which of the following actions in PKI?
A. Signs and verifies all infrastructure messages
B. Issues and signs all private keys
C. Publishes key escrow lists to CRLs
D. Issues and signs all root certificates
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Use of a smart card to authenticate remote servers remains MOST susceptible to which of the following attacks?
A. Malicious code on the local system
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Brute force certificate cracking
D. Distributed dictionary attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Separation of duties is often implemented between developers and administrators in order to separate which of the following?
A. More experienced employees from less experienced employees
B. Changes to program code and the ability to deploy to production
C. Upper level management users from standard development employees
D. The network access layer from the application access layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?
A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team.
B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process.
C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process.
D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial information. Which of the following attacks is being described?
A. Phishing
B. Tailgating
C. Pharming
D. Vishing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A user in the company is in charge of various financial roles but needs to prepare for an upcoming audit. They use the same account to access each financial system. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely be implementedwithin the company?
A. Account lockout policy
B. Account password enforcement
C. Password complexity enabled
D. Separation of duties
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A CRL is comprised oF.
A. Malicious IP addresses.
B. Trusted CA’s.
C. Untrusted private keys.
D. Public keys.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Sara, a user, downloads a keygen to install pirated software. After running the keygen, system performance is extremely slow and numerous antivirus alerts are displayed. JK0-018 dumps Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware?
A. Logic bomb
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Adware
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following may significantly reduce data loss if multiple drives fail at the same time?
A. Virtualization
B. RAID
C. Load balancing
D. Server clustering
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?
A. Management
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Operational
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic?
A. Connect the WAP to a different switch.
B. Create a voice VLAN.
C. Create a DMZ.
D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Select TWO).
A. 10.4.4.125
B. 10.4.4.158
C. 10.4.4.165
D. 10.4.4.189
E. 10.4.4.199
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which of the following algorithms has well documented collisions? (Select TWO).
A. AES
B. MD5
C. SHA
D. SHA-256
E. RSA
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET?
A. HTTPS
B. HMAC
C. GPG
D. SSH
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
An email client says a digital signature is invalid and the sender cannot be verified. The recipient is concerned with which of the following concepts?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Remediation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an effective way to ensure the BEST temperature for all equipment within a datacenter?
A. Fire suppression
B. Raised floor implementation
C. EMI shielding
D. Hot or cool aisle containment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following transportation encryption protocols should be used to ensure maximum security between a web browser and a web server? JK0-018 dumps
A. SSLv2
B. SSHv1
C. RSA
D. TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Developers currently have access to update production servers without going through an approval process. Which of the following strategies would BEST mitigate this risk?
A. Incident management
B. Clean desk policy
C. Routine audits
D. Change management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP?
A. TFTP is slower than FTP.
B. TFTP is more secure than FTP.
C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP.
D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again.
Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is characterized by an attacker attempting to map out an organization’s staff hierarchy in order to send targeted emails?
A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Privilege escalation
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to discover comprehensive security threats on a network?
A. Design reviews
B. Baseline reporting
C. Vulnerability scan
D. Code review
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is an example of a false positive?
A. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
B. A biometric iris scanner rejects an authorized user wearing a new contact lens.
C. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
D. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Data execution prevention is a feature in most operating systems intended to protect against which type of attack?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Header manipulation
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?
A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures?
A. User permission reviews
B. Mandatory vacations
C. Separation of duties
D. Job function rotation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
In which of the following scenarios is PKI LEAST hardened?
A. The CRL is posted to a publicly accessible location.
B. The recorded time offsets are developed with symmetric keys.
C. A malicious CA certificate is loaded on all the clients.
D. All public keys are accessed by an unauthorized user.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application’s security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
A security administrator has just finished creating a hot site for the company. JK0-018 dumps This implementation relates to which of the following concepts?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Succession planning
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
In the initial stages of an incident response, Matt, the security administrator, was provided the hard drives in question from the incident manager. Which of the following incident response procedures would he need to perform in order to begin
the analysis? (Select TWO).
A. Take hashes
B. Begin the chain of custody paperwork
C. Take screen shots
D. Capture the system image
E. Decompile suspicious files
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 40
Which of the following is used to certify intermediate authorities in a large PKI deployment?
A. Root CA
B. Recovery agent
C. Root user
D. Key escrow
Correct Answer: A

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New CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering
C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router.
Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by the computer with IP 10.2.2.10.
DIAGRAM
PC1 PC2
[192.168.1.30]——–[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]———[10.2.2.10] LOGS
10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN
10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK
10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following can be inferred about the above environment?
A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server.
B. The web server listens on a non-standard port.
C. The router filters port 80 traffic.
D. The router implements NAT.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?
A. NIPS
B. HIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has tasked The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to develop and update all Internal Operating Procedures and Standard Operating Procedures documentation in order to successfully respond to future incidents. Which of the following stages of the Incident Handling process is the team working on?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Eradication
C. Recovery
D. Preparation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Used in conjunction, which of the following are PII? (Select TWO).
A. Marital status
B. Favorite movie
C. Pet’s name
D. Birthday
E. Full name
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
A victim is logged onto a popular home router forum site in order to troubleshoot some router configuration issues. The router is a fairly standard configuration and has an IP address of 192.168.1.1. The victim is logged into their router administrative interface in one tab and clicks a forum link in another tab. Due to clicking the forum link, the home router reboots. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?
A. Brute force password attack
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A recent spike in virus detections has been attributed to end-users visiting www.compnay.com. The business has an established relationship with an organization using the URL of www.company.com but not with the site that has been causing the infections. Which of the following would BEST describe this type of attack?
A. Typo squatting
B. Session hijacking
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
A database administrator receives a call on an outside telephone line from a person who states that they work for a well-known database vendor. The caller states there have been problems applying the newly released vulnerability patch for their database system, and asks what version is being used so that they can assist. Which of the following is the BEST action for the administrator to take?
A. Thank the caller, report the contact to the manager, and contact the vendor support line to verify any reported patch issues.
B. Obtain the vendor’s email and phone number and call them back after identifying the number of systems affected by the patch.
C. Give the caller the database version and patch level so that they can receive help applying the patch.
D. Call the police to report the contact about the database systems, and then check system logs for attack attempts.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An IT security technician is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company. SY0-401 dumps
Which of the following is an application security technique that can be used to identify unknown weaknesses within the code?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Denial of service
C. Fuzzing
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
The systems administrator wishes to implement a hardware-based encryption method that could also be used to sign code. They can achieve this by:
A. Utilizing the already present TPM.
B. Configuring secure application sandboxes.
C. Enforcing whole disk encryption.
D. Moving data and applications into the cloud.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to play games and utilize instant messaging. Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue?
A. Device encryption
B. Application control
C. Content filtering
D. Screen-locks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of a tracking cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is the BEST reason for placing a password lock on a mobile device?
A. Prevents an unauthorized user from accessing owner’s data
B. Enables remote wipe capabilities
C. Stops an unauthorized user from using the device again
D. Prevents an unauthorized user from making phone calls
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is an XML based open standard used in the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Several employee accounts appear to have been cracked by an attacker. Which of the following should the security administrator implement to mitigate password cracking attacks? (Select TWO).
A. Increase password complexity
B. Deploy an IDS to capture suspicious logins
C. Implement password history
D. Implement monitoring of logins
E. Implement password expiration
F. Increase password length
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 22
To ensure compatibility with their flagship product, the security engineer is tasked to recommend an encryption cipher that will be compatible with the majority of third party software and hardware vendors.
Which of the following should be recommended?
A. SHA
B. MD5
C. Blowfish
D. AES
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
While setting up a secure wireless corporate network, which of the following should Pete, an administrator, avoid implementing?
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. WEP
D. WPA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which of the following protocols uses an asymmetric key to open a session and then establishes a symmetric key for the remainder of the session?
A. SFTP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
The IT department has installed new wireless access points but discovers that the signal extends far into the parking lot. Which of the following actions should be taken to correct this?
A. Disable the SSID broadcasting
B. Configure the access points so that MAC filtering is not used
C. Implement WEP encryption on the access points
D. Lower the power for office coverage only
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
A risk assessment team is concerned about hosting data with a cloud service provider (CSP) which of the following findings would justify this concern?
A. The CPS utilizes encryption for data at rest and in motion
B. The CSP takes into account multinational privacy concerns
C. The financial review indicates the company is a startup
D. SLA state service tickets will be resolved in less than 15 minutes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A computer on a company network was infected with a zero-day exploit after an employee accidently opened an email that contained malicious content. The employee recognized the email as malicious and was attempting to delete it, but accidently opened it. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following should be done to prevent this scenario from occurring again in the future?
A. Install host-based firewalls on all computers that have an email client installed
B. Set the email program default to open messages in plain text
C. Install end-point protection on all computers that access web email
D. Create new email spam filters to delete all messages from that sender
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
A small IT security form has an internal network composed of laptops, servers, and printers. The network has both wired and wireless segments and supports VPN access from remote sites. To protect the network from internal and external threats, including social engineering attacks, the company decides to implement stringent security controls. Which of the following lists is the BEST combination of security controls to implement?
A. Disable SSID broadcast, require full disk encryption on servers, laptop, and personally owned electronic devices, enable MAC filtering on WAPs, require photographic ID to enter the building.
B. Enable port security; divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; apply ACLs to all network equipment; enable MAC filtering on WAPs; and require two-factor authentication for network access.
C. Divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; require the use of one time pads for network key exchange and access; enable MAC filtering ACLs on all servers.
D. Enable SSID broadcast on a honeynet; install monitoring software on all corporate equipment’ install CCTVs to deter social engineering; enable SE Linux in permissive mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A security guard has informed the Chief information Security Officer that a person with a tablet has been walking around the building. The guard also noticed strange white markings in different areas of the parking lot. The person is attempting which of the following types of attacks?
A. Jamming
B. War chalking
C. Packet sniffing
D. Near field communication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A security Operations Center was scanning a subnet for infections and found a contaminated machine.
One of the administrators disabled the switch port that the machine was connected to, and informed a local technician of the infection. Which of the following steps did the administrator perform?
A. Escalation
B. Identification
C. Notification
D. Quarantine
E. Preparation
Correct Answer: CD

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Vendor: Citrix
Exam Name: Citrix XenDesktop 5 Basic Administration
Exam Code: 1Y0-A19
Version: Demo
Total Questions: 90 Q&As
1Y0-A19 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator configured the automatic disk image update feature, but has since noticed that changes to vDisks are not being replicated automatically. What could be a reason for this behavior?
A. The vDisk assigned to the target devices are in private image mode.
B. The target devices need to be reconfigured to point to the new vDisk files.
C. The target device has NOT restarted since the changes were applied to the vDisk.
D. There is more than one vDisk from the same Provisioning services host with the same Class.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
In Desktop Director, which filter shows an administrator the number of end users connected to a certain desktop group within a XenDesktop environment?
A. View All within the machine panel
B. View the desktop group in the usage panel
C. View connections in the infrastructure panel
D. View real time data in the desktop group details panel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which administrative role can manage catalogs and build virtual desktops?
A. Machine administrator
B. Help desk administrator
C. Read-only administrator
D. Desktop group administrator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two components must an administrator install on a master image that will be used for streamed machines? (Choose two.)
A. Receiver
B. Online plug-in
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two components does Citrix recommend an administrator install on a master image for optimal application access? 1Y0-A19 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Online plug-in
B. Offline plug-in
C. EdgeSight agent
D. provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two tools can an administrator use to modify policy settings in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Desktop Studio
B. System Registry
C. Desktop Director
D. Group Policy Editor
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a catalog. Provisioning services-based virtual machines will be imported into the catalog. Which machine type must the administrator select when creating the catalog?
A. Pooled
B. Existing
C. Streamed
D. Dedicated
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two terns are needed for an administrator to create a catalog for existing machines in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines available in the datacenter
B. Active Directory computer accounts for the machines
C. Device collections configured to load the vDisk over the network
D. A PrtMs.on.ng services deployment with a vDisk imaged from the master target device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which policy takes precedence when a Citrix policy contradicts an Active Directory GPO policy?
A. The Citrix policy
B. The higher priority policy
C. The most restrictive policy
D. The Active Directory GPO policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
How can an administrator reallocate an assigned virtual desktop to a new employee? 1Y0-A19 dumps
A. Edit the desktop group, go to the users page and add the new employee.
B. Search for the desktop in Desktop Director, edit the desktop and add the new employee.
C. Select the appropriate catalog, find the machine in the catalog and add the new employee.
D. Find the appropriate desktop in the desktop group, click on `Change user’ and add the new employee.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An administrator was informed by multiple users who access desktops in a desktop group that the time on the desktops is incorrect. How can the administrator fix the time on the desktops?
A. Edit the desktop group and change the time zone in ‘Edit user settings’
B. Put the desktops in maintenance mode and then change the time zone on each desktop.
C. Edit the catalog that was used to create the desktop group with the correct time for the desktops.
D. Put the vDisk image used by the desktops in Private image mode then change the time on the image.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database 12c
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: RAC and Grid Infrastructure Administration
Exam Code: 1Z0-068
Total Questions: 157 Q&As
1Z0-068 dumps
QUESTION 1
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are automatically terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?
A. Setting a metric threshold
B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed. 1Z0-068 dumps
Which three statements are true about the advisor given by the segment advisor?
A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
B. It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary managed tablespaces it the no chained rows.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E. It may advise the use of segment shrink for free list managed tables.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 3
You want to flash back a test database by five hours.
You issue this command:
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP (SYSDATE – 5/24);
Which two statements are true about this flashback scenario?
A. The database must have multiplexed redo logs for the flashback to succeed.
B. The database must be MOUNTED for the flashback to succeed.
C. The database must use block change tracking for the flashback to succeed.
D. The database must be opened in restricted mode for the flashback to succeed.
E. The database must be opened with the RESETLOGS option after the flashback is complete.
F. The database must be opened in read-only mode to check if the database has been flashed back to the correct SCN.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
Which three resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases when creating a multitenant container database plan (CDB plan) using Oracle Database Resource Manager?
A. Maximum Undo per consumer group
B. Maximum Idle time
C. Parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. Exadata I/O
F. Local file system I/O
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privilege.The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode.
There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and PDBs.
What happens alter issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?
A. The shutdown proceeds immediately. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs are either committed or rolled hack.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
C. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either committed or rolled back.
D. The statement results in an error because there are open PDBs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, 1Z0-068 dumps you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:
1Z0-068 dumps
After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)?
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E. The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 9
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?
A. Compare Period ADDM report
B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job’s elapsed time?
A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job’s job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database? 1Z0-068 dumps
A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed frequently with queries that span multiple partitions.
The table has a local prefixed, range partitioned index.
Some of these queries access very few rows in some partitions and all the rows in other partitions, but these queries still perform a full scan for all accessed partitions.
This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the start of a month. You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are accessed from a segment, while still allowing full scans for segments where many rows are returned.
Which three methods could transparently help to achieve this result?
A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
D. Converting the partitioned table to a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the monthly tables, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
F. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
Correct Answer: BCE

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