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Latest AZ-204 exam questions and answers

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code
15	Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure	AZ-204

Question 1:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals.

Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You are developing an Azure solution to collect point-of-sale (POS) device data from 2,000 stores located throughout the world. A single device can produce 2 megabytes (MB) of data every 24 hours. Each store location has one to five devices that send data.

You must store the device data in Azure Blob storage. Device data must be correlated based on a device identifier. Additional stores are expected to open in the future.

You need to implement a solution to receive the device data.

Solution: Provision an Azure Event Grid. Configure event filtering to evaluate the device identifier.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead use an Azure Service Bus, which is used for order processing and financial transactions.

Note: An event is a lightweight notification of a condition or a state change. Event hubs are usually used to react to status changes.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/compare-messaging-services

Question 2:

HOTSPOT

A company is developing a Node.js web app. The web app code is hosted in a GitHub repository located at https://github.com/TailSpinToys/webapp.

The web app must be reviewed before it is moved to production. You must deploy the initial code release to a deployment slot named review.

You need to create the web app and deploy the code.

How should you complete the commands? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: New-AzResourceGroup

The New-AzResourceGroup cmdlet creates an Azure resource group. Box 2: New-AzAppServicePlan The New-AzAppServicePlan cmdlet creates an Azure App Service plan in a given location

Box 3: New-AzWebApp

The New-AzWebApp cmdlet creates an Azure Web App in a given resource group Box 4: New-AzWebAppSlot The New-AzWebAppSlot cmdlet creates an Azure Web App slot.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/az.resources/new-azresourcegroup?view=azps-2.3.2 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/az.websites/new-azappserviceplan?view=azps-2.3.2 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/az.websites/new-azwebapp?view=azps-2.3.2 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/az.websites/new-azwebappslot?view=azps-2.3.2

Question 3:

You are building a website that uses Azure Blob storage for data storage. You configure the Azure Blob storage lifecycle to move all blobs to the archive tier after 30 days.

Customers have requested a service-level agreement (SLA) for viewing data older than 30 days.

You need to document the minimum SLA for data recovery.

Which SLA should you use?

A. at least two days

B. between one and 15 hours

C. at least one day

D. between zero and 60 minutes

Correct Answer: B

The archive access tier has the lowest storage cost. But it has higher data retrieval costs compared to the hot and cool tiers. Data in the archive tier can take several hours to retrieve depending on the priority of the rehydration. For small objects, a high-priority rehydrate may retrieve the object from the archive in under 1 hour.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers?tabs=azure-portal

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a Service Bus queue.

A rule already exists to scale up the App Service when the average queue length of unprocessed and valid queue messages is greater than 1000.

You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale-up condition is not met.

How should you configure the Scale rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Service bus queue

You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a Service Bus queue.

Box 2: ActiveMessage Count

ActiveMessageCount: Messages in the queue or subscription that are in the active state and ready for delivery.

Box 3: Count

Box 4: Less than or equal to

You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale-up condition is not met.

Box 5: Decrease count by

Question 5:

HOTSPOT

You are creating a CLI script that creates Azure web app-related services in Azure App Service. The web app uses the following variables:

You need to automatically deploy code from GitHub to the newly created web app.

How should you complete the script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: az appservice plan create

The azure group creates a command that successfully returns JSON results. Now we can use the resource group to create an azure app service plan

Box 2: az webapp create

Create a new web app.

Box 3: –plan $webappname

..with the service plan, we created in step.

Box 4: az web app deployment

Continuous Delivery with GitHub. Example:

az webapp deployment source config –name firstsamplewebsite1 –resource-group websites–repo-URL $gitrepo –branch master –git-token $token

Box 5: –repo-URL $gitrepo –branch master –manual-integration

References:

https://medium.com/@satish1v/devops-your-way-to-azure-web-apps-with-azure-cli-206ed4b3e9b1

Question 6:

HOTSPOT

A company is developing a gaming platform. Users can join teams to play online and see leaderboards that include player statistics. The solution includes an entity named Team.

You plan to implement an Azure Redis Cache instance to improve the efficiency of data operations for entities that rarely change.

You need to invalidate the cache when team data is changed.

How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: IDatabase cache = connection.GetDatabase();

Connection refers to a previously configured ConnectionMultiplexer.

Box 2: cache.StringSet(“teams”,”)

To specify the expiration of an item in the cache, use the TimeSpan parameter of StringSet.

cache.StringSet(“key1”, “value1”, TimeSpan.FromMinutes(90));

Reference:

https://azure.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/lap-around-azure-redis-cache-preview/

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/webapp/config/container

Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You need to configure Azure Service Bus to Event Grid integration.

Which Azure Service Bus settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Premium Service Bus can now emit events to Event Grid when there are messages in a queue or a subscription when no receivers are present.

You can create Event Grid subscriptions to your Service Bus namespaces, listen to these events, and then react to the events by starting a receiver.

With this feature, you can use Service Bus in reactive programming models.

To enable the feature, you need the following items:

A Service Bus Premium namespace with at least one Service Bus queue or a Service Bus topic with at least one subscription. Contributor access to the Service Bus namespace.

Box 2: Contributor

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-to-event-grid-integration-concept

Question 8:

DRAG DROP

You are maintaining an existing application that uses an Azure Blob GPv1 Premium storage account. Data older than three months is rarely used.

Data newer than three months must be available immediately. Data older than a year must be saved but does not need to be available immediately.

You need to configure the account to support a lifecycle management rule that moves blob data to archive storage for data not modified in the last year.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Step 1: Upgrade the storage account to GPv2

Object storage data tiering between hot, cool, and archive is supported in Blob Storage and General Purpose v2 (GPv2) accounts. General Purpose v1 (GPv1) accounts don’t support tiering.

You can easily convert your existing GPv1 or Blob Storage accounts to GPv2 accounts through the Azure portal.

Step 2: Copy the data to be archived to a Standard GPv2 storage account and then delete the data from the original storage account

Step 3: Change the storage account access tier from hot to cool

Note Hot – Optimized for storing data that is accessed frequently.

Cool – Optimized for storing data that is infrequently accessed and stored for at least 30 days.

Archive – Optimized for storing data that is rarely accessed and stored for at least 180 days with flexible latency requirements, on the order of hours.

Only the hot and cool access tiers can be set at the account level. The archive access tier can only be set at the blob level.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers

Question 9:

DRAG DROP

You plan to create a Docker image that runs as an ASP.NET Core application named ContosoApp. You have a setup script named setup script.ps1 and a series of application files including ContosoApp.dll.

You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:

Call setup script.ps1 when the container is built.

Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts.

The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1 are stored.

Which four commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Step 1: WORKDIR /apps/ContosoApp

Step 2: COPY ./The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1 are stored.

Step 3: EXPOSE ./ContosApp/ /app/ContosoApp

Step 4: CMD powershell ./setupScript.ps1

ENTRYPOINT [“dotnet”, “ContosoApp.dll”]

You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:

Call setupScript.ps1 when the container is built.

Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/containers/tutorial-custom-docker-image

Question 10:

You are developing an Azure Cosmos DB solution by using the Azure Cosmos DB SQL API. The data includes millions of documents. Each document may contain hundreds of properties.

The properties of the documents do not contain distinct values for partitioning. Azure Cosmos DB must scale individual containers in the database to meet the performance needs of the application by spreading the workload evenly across all partitions over time.

You need to select a partition key.

Which two partition keys can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a single property value that does not appear frequently in the documents

B. a value containing the collection name

C. a single property value that appears frequently in the documents

D. a concatenation of multiple property values with a random suffix appended

E. a hash suffix appended to a property value

Correct Answer: DE

You can form a partition key by concatenating multiple property values into a single artificial partition key property. These keys are referred to as synthetic keys.

Another possible strategy to distribute the workload more evenly is to append a random number at the end of the partition key value. When you distribute items in this way, you can perform parallel write operations across partitions.

Note: It\’s the best practice to have a partition key with many distinct values, such as hundreds or thousands.

The goal is to distribute your data and workload evenly across the items associated with these partition key values. If such a property doesn’t exist in your data, you can construct a synthetic partition key.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/synthetic-partition-keys

Question 11:

HOTSPOT

You need to secure the Shipping Function app.

How should you configure the app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Scenario: Shipping Function app: Implement secure function endpoints by using app-level security and include Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Box 1: Function

Box 2: JSON-based Token (JWT)

Azure AD uses JSON-based tokens (JWTs) that contain claims

Box 3: HTTP

How a web app delegates sign-in to Azure AD and obtains a token

User authentication happens via the browser. The OpenID protocol uses standard HTTP protocol messages.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/authentication-scenarios

Question 12:

HOTSPOT

You are developing an application that uses Azure Storage Queues.

You have the following code:

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

The code does not configure the lock duration.

Note: Default lock duration is 30 seconds. Lock duration will be set even if it is not specified in the code.

Box 2: Yes

Peeking messages will not remove them from the queue.

Box 3: Yes

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/queues/storage-dotnet-how-to-use-queues

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/api/microsoft.servicebus.messaging.queuedescription.lockduration

Question 13:

DRAG DROP

You manage several existing Logic Apps.

You need to change definitions, add new logic, and optimize these apps on a regular basis.

What should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct functionalities. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Enterprise Integration Pack

For business-to-business (B2B) solutions and seamless communication between organizations, you can build automated scalable enterprise integration workflows by using the Enterprise Integration Pack (EIP) with Azure Logic Apps.

Box 2: Code View Editor

Edit JSON – Azure portal

1.

Sign in to the Azure portal.

2.

From the left menu, choose All services. In the search box, find “logic apps”, and then from the results, select your logic app.

3.

On your logic app\’s menu, under Development Tools, select Logic App Code View.

4.

The Code View editor opens and shows your logic app definition in JSON format.

Box 3: Logic Apps Designer

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-enterprise-integration-overview https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-author-definitions

Question 14:

HOTSPOT

You are developing an Azure App Service hosted ASP.NET Core web app to deliver video-on-demand streaming media.

You enable an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) Standard for the web endpoint. Customer videos are downloaded from the web app by using the following example URL:http//www.contoso.com/content.p4?quality=1

All media content must expire from the cache after one hour. Customer videos with varying quality must be delivered to the closest regional point of presence (POP) node.

You need to configure Azure CDN caching rules.

Which options should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Override

Override: Ignore the origin-provided cache duration; use the provided cache duration instead. This will not override cache-control: no-cache.

Set if missing: Honor origin-provided cache-directive headers, if they exist; otherwise, use the provided cache duration.

Incorrect:

Bypass cache: Do not cache and ignore origin-provided cache-directive headers.

Box 2: 1 hour

All media content must expire from the cache after one hour.

Box 3: Cache every unique URL

Cache every unique URL: In this mode, each request with a unique URL, including the query string, is treated as a unique asset with its own cache. For example, the response from the origin server for a request for example. ashx?q=test1 is

cached at the POP node and returned for subsequent caches with the same query string. A request for example.ashx?q=test2 is cached as a separate asset with its own time-to-live setting.

Incorrect Answers:

Bypass caching for query strings: In this mode, requests with query strings are not cached at the CDN POP node. The POP node retrieves the asset directly from the origin server and passes it to the requestor with each request.

Ignore query strings: Default mode. In this mode, the CDN point-of-presence (POP) node passes the query strings from the requestor to the origin server on the first request and caches the asset. All subsequent requests for the asset that are served from the POP ignore the query strings until the cached asset expires.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cdn/cdn-query-string

Question 15:

HOTSPOT

You are building a traffic monitoring system that monitors traffic along six highways. The system produces time series analysis-based reports for each highway. Data from traffic sensors are stored in Azure Event Hub.

Traffic data is consumed by four departments. Each department has an Azure Web App that displays the time-series-based reports and contains a WebJob that processes the incoming data from Event Hub. All Web Apps run on App Service Plans with three instances.

Data throughout must be maximized. Latency must be minimized.

You need to implement the Azure Event Hub.

Which settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: 6

The number of partitions is specified at creation and must be between 2 and 32.

There are 6 highways.

Box 2: Highway

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-features

…

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
15	Certified Ethical Hacker v11 Exam	Lead4Pass	Sep 21, 2022	Sep 9, 2022

New Question 1:

In the field of cryptanalysis, what is meant by a “rubber-hose” attack?

A. Forcing the targeted keystream through a hardware-accelerated device such as an ASIC.

B. A backdoor placed into a cryptographic algorithm by its creator.

C. Extraction of cryptographic secrets through coercion or torture.

D. Attempting to decrypt ciphertext by making logical assumptions about the contents of the original plaintext.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

When considering how an attacker may exploit a web server, what is web server footprinting?

A. When an attacker implements a vulnerability scanner to identify weaknesses

B. When an attacker creates a complete profile of the site\’s external links and file structures

C. When an attacker gathers system-level data, including account details and server names

D. When an attacker uses a brute-force attack to crack a web-server password

Correct Answer: B

New Question 3:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast.

He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

what are common files on a web server that can be misconfigured and provide useful Information for a hacker such as verbose error messages?

A. httpd.conf

B. administration.config

C. idq.dll

D. php.ini

Correct Answer: D

The php.ini file may be a special file for PHP. it\’s where you declare changes to your PHP settings.

The server is already configured with standard settings for PHP, which your site will use by default.

Unless you would like to vary one or more settings, there\’s no got to create or modify a php.ini file. If you\’d wish to make any changes to settings, please do so through the MultiPHP INI Editor.

New Question 5:

What is the common name for a vulnerability disclosure program opened by companies In platforms such as HackerOne?

A. Vulnerability hunting program

B. Bug bounty program

C. White-hat hacking program

D. Ethical hacking program

Correct Answer: B

Bug bounty programs allow independent security researchers to report bugs to companies and receive rewards or compensation.

These bugs area unit sometimes security exploits and vulnerabilities, although they will additionally embody method problems, hardware flaws, and so on.

The reports area unit is usually created through a program traveled by an associate degree freelance third party (like Bugcrowd or HackerOne).

The companies can get wind of (and run) a program curated to the organization\’s wants. Programs are also non-public (invite-only) wherever reports area unit unbroken confidential to the organization or public (where anyone will sign in and join). they will happen over a collection timeframe or without a stopping date (though the second possibility is a lot of common).

Who uses bug bounty programs? Many major organizations use bug bounties as an area of their security program, together with AOL, Android, Apple, Digital Ocean, and Goldman Sachs. you\’ll read an inventory of all the programs offered by major bug bounty suppliers, Bugcrowd and HackerOne, at these links. Why do corporations use bug bounty programs?

Bug bounty programs provide corporations the flexibility to harness an outsized cluster of hackers so as to seek out bugs in their code.

This gives them access to a bigger variety of hackers or testers than they\’d be able to access on a one-on-one basis.

It {can also|also will|can even|may also|may} increase the probabilities that bugs area unit found and reported to them before malicious hackers can exploit them.

It may also be an honest publicity alternative for a firm. As bug bounties became a lot of common, having a bug bounty program will signal to the general public and even regulators that a corporation incorporates a mature security program.

This trend is likely to continue, as some have begun to see bug bounty programs as a business normal that all companies ought to invest in.

Why do researchers and hackers participate in bug bounty programs? Finding and news bugs via a bug bounty program may end up in each money bonus and recognition.

In some cases, it will be a good thanks to showing real-world expertise once you are looking for employment, or will even facilitate introducing you to parents on the protection team within a company.

This can be full-time income for a few of us, income to supplement employment, or a way to point out your skills and find a full-time job.

It may also be fun! it is a nice (legal) probability to check out your skills against huge companies and government agencies.

What area unit the disadvantages of a bug bounty program for independent researchers and hackers? A lot of hackers participate in these varieties of programs, and it will be tough to form a major quantity of cash on the platform. In order to say the reward, the hacker has to be the primary person to submit the bug to the program. meaning that in applying, you may pay weeks searching for a bug to use, solely to be the person to report it and build no cash.

Roughly ninety-seven participants on major bug bounty platforms haven\’t sold-out a bug. In fact, a 2019 report from HackerOne confirmed that out of quite three hundred,000 registered users, solely around two.5% received a bounty in their time on the platform.

Essentially, most hackers are not creating a lot of cash on these platforms, and really few square measure creating enough to switch a full-time wage (plus they do not have advantages like vacation days, insurance, and retirement planning).

What square measures the disadvantages of bug bounty programs for organizations? These programs square measure solely helpful if the program ends up in the companies realizing issues that they weren\’t able to find themselves (and if they\’ll fix those problems)!

If the company is not mature enough to be able to quickly rectify known problems, a bug bounty program is not the right alternative for the company.

Also, any bug bounty program is probably going to draw in an outsized range of submissions, several of which can not be high-quality submissions. a corporation must be ready to cope with the exaggerated volume of alerts, and also the risk of a coffee signal to noise magnitude relation (essentially that it\’s probably that they\’re going to receive quite a few unhelpful reports for each useful report).

Additionally, if the program does not attract enough participants (or participants with the incorrect talent set, and so participants are not able to establish any bugs), the program is not useful for the companies. The overwhelming majority of bug bounty participants consider website vulnerabilities (72%, per HackerOne), whereas solely a number (3.5%) value more highly to seek for package vulnerabilities.

This is probably because of the actual fact that hacking in operation systems (like network hardware and memory) needs a big quantity of extremely specialized experience. this implies that firms may even see vital come-on investment for bug bounties on websites, and not for alternative applications, notably those that need specialized experience.

This conjointly implies that organizations which require to look at AN application or website within a selected time frame may not need to rely on a bug bounty as there is no guarantee of once or if they receive reports.

Finally, it is often probably risky to permit freelance researchers to try to penetrate your network. this could end in the public speech act of bugs, inflicting name harm within the limelight (which could end in individuals not eager to purchase the organizations\’ product or service), or speech act of bugs to additional malicious third parties, United Nations agency may use this data to focus on the organization.

New Question 6:

An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption.

The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected.

After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages.

What is the attack performed in the above scenario?

A. Timing-based attack

B. Side-channel attack

C. Downgrade security attack

D. Cache-based attack

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 1 of the OSI model.

B. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model.

C. Packet Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model.

D. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

Ralph, a professional hacker, targeted Jane, who had recently bought new systems for her company. After a few days, Ralph contacted Jane while masquerading as a legitimate customer support executive, informing her that her systems need to be serviced for proper functioning and that customer support will send a computer technician. Jane promptly replied positively.

Ralph entered Jane\’s company using this opportunity and gathered sensitive information by scanning terminals for passwords, searching for important documents on desks, and rummaging bins.

What is the type of attack technique Ralph used on jane?

A. Dumpster diving

B. Eavesdropping

C. Shoulder surfing

D. impersonation

Correct Answer: D

New Question 9:

Leverock Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization.

From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies.

He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks.

In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks.

What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?

A. Strategic threat intelligence

B. Tactical threat intelligence

C. Operational threat intelligence

D. Technical threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C

New Question 10:

Which of the following algorithms can be used to guarantee the integrity of messages being sent, in transit, or stored?

A. symmetric algorithms

B. asymmetric algorithms

C. hashing algorithms

D. integrity algorithms

Correct Answer: C

New Question 11:

Don, a student, came across a gaming app in a third-party app store and Installed it.

Subsequently, all the legitimate apps on his smartphone were replaced by deceptive applications that appeared legitimate. He also received many advertisements on his smartphone after Installing the app.

What is the attack performed on Don in the above scenario?

A. SMS phishing attack

B. SIM card attack

C. Agent Smith attack

D. Clickjacking

Correct Answer: D

Clickjacking is an attack that tricks a user into clicking a webpage element that is invisible or disguised as another element. this will cause users to unwittingly download malware, visit malicious sites, provide credentials or sensitive information, transfer money, or purchase products online.

Typically, clickjacking is performed by displaying an invisible page or HTML element, inside an iframe, on top of the page the user sees.

The user believes they\’re clicking the visible page but actually they\’re clicking an invisible element within the additional page transposed on top of it.

The invisible page might be a malicious page, or a legitimate page the user didn\’t shall visit. for instance, a page on the user\’s banking site that authorizes the transfer of cash.

There are several variations of the clickjacking attack, such as Likejacking a way during which the Facebook “Like” button is manipulated, causing users to “like” a page they really didn\’t shall like.

Cursorjacking is a UI redressing technique that changes the cursor for the position the user perceives to a different position.

Cursorjacking relies on vulnerabilities in Flash and therefore the Firefox browser, which has now been fixed. Clickjacking attack example1.

The attacker creates a beautiful page that promises to offer the user a free trip to Tahiti.2. within the background the attacker checks if the user is logged into his banking site and if so, loads the screen that permits the transfer of funds, using query parameters to insert the attacker\’s bank details into the shape .3. The bank transfer page is displayed in an invisible iframe above the free gift page, with the “Confirm Transfer” button exactly aligned over the “Receive Gift” button visible to the user.4. The user visits the page and clicks the “Book My Free Trip” button.5. actually, the user is clicking on the invisible iframe and has clicked the “Confirm Transfer” button.

Funds are transferred to the attacker.6. The user is redirected to a page with information about the free gift (not knowing what happened within the background). This example illustrates that, during a clickjacking attack, the malicious action (on the bank website, during this case) can\’t be traced back to the attacker because the user performed it while being legitimately signed into their own account. Clickjacking mitigation there are two general ways to defend against clickjacking: Client-side methods are the foremost common is named Frame Busting. Client-side methods are often effective in some cases but are considered to not be a best practice because they will be easily bypassed. Server-side methods the foremost common is X-Frame-Options. Server-side methods are recommended by security experts as efficient thanks to defending against clickjacking.

New Question 12:

Bob, your senior colleague, has sent you a mail regarding a deal with one of the clients. You are requested to accept the offer and you oblige. After 2 days, Bab denies that he had ever sent a mail.

What do you want to “”know”” to prove to yourself that it was Bob who had sent a mail?

A. Non-Repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: A

New Question 13:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization.

In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the victims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation.

What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: B

Knowing when to include agents in your vulnerability management processes isn\’t an easy decision. Below are common use cases for agent-based vulnerability scanning to assist you to build out your combined scanning strategy.

Intermittent or Irregular Connectivity: Vulnerability management teams are now tasked with scanning devices that access the company network remotely using public or home-based Wi-Fi connections.

These connections are often unreliable and intermittent leading to missed network-based scans. Fortunately, the scanning frequency of agents doesn\’t requires a network connection.

The agent detects when the device is back online, sending scan data when it\’s ready to communicate with the VM platform. Connecting Non-Corporate Devices to Corporate Networks: With the increased use of private devices, company networks are more exposed to malware and infections thanks to limited IT and security teams\’ control and visibility.

Agent-based scanning gives security teams insight into weaknesses on non-corporate endpoints, keeping them informed about professional hackers as potential attack vectors in order that they can take appropriate action.

Endpoints Residing Outside of Company Networks: Whether company-issued or BYOD, remote assets frequently hook up with the web outside of traditional network bounds. An agent that resides on remote endpoints conducts regular, authenticated scans checking out system changes and unpatched software.

The results are then sent back to the VM platform and combined with other scan results for review, prioritization, and mitigation planning.

New Question 14:

Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market.

To launch the attack process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about ONS servers and to identify the hosts connected to the target network.

He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, and computer names. IP addresses. DNS records, and network Whois records.

He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?

A. Knative

B. zANTI

C. Towelroot

D. Bluto

Correct Answer: D

New Question 15:

Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state.

He attempted to use different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with one special command-line utility.

Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs?

A. wash

B. ntptrace

C. macof

D. net View

Correct Answer: A

…

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300-610 DCID exam CCNP Data Center CCNP Data Center 300-610 Dumps CCNP Data Center 300-610 Dumps exam questions CCNP Data Center 300-610 dumps PDF Cisco Cisco 300-610 Exam Dumps

Latest Updated CCNP Data Center 300-610 Dumps Helps Candidates Pass 300-610 DCID Exam

admin September 9, 2022 0 Comments

The latest updated CCNP Data Center 300-610 dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine, containing 165 exam questions and answers, serve all 300-610 DCID exam candidates to help them successfully pass the exam.

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Free sharing of 15 CCNP Data Center 300-610 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

A failure occurs on the network between two BFD and OSPF neighbors. Drag and drop the protocol actions from the left into the correct order on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/fs_bfd.html#wp1238898

New Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag the appropriate from the left onto the current UDLD modes of operation on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/10591-77.html

New Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the data center technologies from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all technologies are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch resources from the left onto the correct groups on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/virtual_device_context/configuration/guide/b-7k-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-Virtual-Device-Context-Configuration-Guide/creating-vdc.html

New Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the feature descriptions from the left onto the correct UCS Fabric Interconnect modes on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

New Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the configurations from the left onto the correct policies on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/configuring_network_related_policies.html#task_7F03A03C719A4A44B8ACFAD73AADC73C

New Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the components from the left onto the descriptions on the right that indicate what occurs to Fibre Channel fabric when that component fails.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 8:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the technologies from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 9:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the SAN components from the left onto the correct design considerations on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag the requirements from the left onto the correct policy types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 11:

What is the advantage of Cisco HyperFlex Edge as compared to Cisco HyperFlex Standard Clusters?

A. Cisco Intersight automatically creates an invisible cloud witness.

B. Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis provides SEEPROM connectivity to solve split-brain scenarios.

C. Cisco UCS Manager provides service profile portability across nodes.

D. Cisco HyperFlex Edge provides native container support through the KVM hypervisor.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/hyperconverged-infrastructure/hyperflex-hx-series/whitepaper-c11-741999.pdf

New Question 12:

A set of virtual machines must be live migrated from a data center to a disaster recovery site. The data center and disaster recovery sites are connected through an Inter-Pod Network topology. The gateway address of the virtual machine is the same across the data center and disaster recovery. Which Cisco Nexus feature supports this requirement?

A. VXLAN EVPN

B. FabricPath

C. FHRR

D. VPLS

Correct Answer: A

New Question 13:

Which two vSphere features must be included in the design of a Cisco HyperFlex systems stretched cluster? (Choose two.)

A. HA

B. VSS

C. FT

D. VDP

E. DRS

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/hyperconverged_systems/ HyperFlex_HX_DataPlatformSoftware/HyperFlex_Stretched_Cluster/3_5/ b_HyperFlex_Systems_Stretched_Cluster_Guide_3_5.pdf

New Question 14:

Which factor determines the choice of platform designing a Cisco HyperFlex infrastructure to support computer-aided design applications?

A. network speed

B. GPU support

C. storage capacity

D. processor count

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/hyperconverged-infrastructure/hyperflex-hx-series/whitepaper-c11-740243.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/hyperconverged-infrastructure/hyperflex-hx-series/ hx-220c-m5-specsheet.pdf

New Question 15:

An engineer must deploy a Cisco HyperFlex system at two data centers. For redundancy reasons, the setup must achieve data protection in case of an entire site failure. The data must be available on both sites at all times to keep the

recovery time objective to a minimum.

Which Cisco HyperFlex deployment model meets these requirements?

A. ROBO cluster

B. stretched cluster

C. edge with four nodes or more

D. standard with eight nodes

Correct Answer: B

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300-415 ENSDWI 300-415 Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions CCNP Enterprise Cisco Cisco 300-415 exam questions

The latest updated Cisco 300-415 exam questions are shared online

admin August 26, 2022 0 Comments

Cisco 300-415 exam questions and answers have been updated to share online first, you can download Cisco 300-415 dumps with PDF and VCE exam engine https://www.leads4pass.com/300-415.html, practice 227 latest Cisco 300-415 exam questions.

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Online practice for some of the latest Cisco 300-415 exam questions available online:

New Question 1:

Which two hardware platforms support Cisco IOS XE SD-WAN images? (Choose two.)

A. ISR4000 series

B. ISR9300 series

C. vEdge-1000 series

D. ASR9000 series

E. ASR1000 series

Check answer ⇩

New Question 2:

What is a default protocol for control plane connection?

A. HTTPS

B. TLS

C. IPsec

D. DTLS

Check answer ⇩

New Question 3:

Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN control plane architecture should be located in a public Internet address space and facilitates NAT traversal?

A. WAN Edge

B. vSmart

C. vBond

D. vManage

Check answer ⇩

New Question 4:

Which Cisco SD-WAN WAN Edge platform supports LTE and Wi-Fi?

A. ISR 1101

B. ASR 1001

C. CSR 1000v

D. vEdge 2000

Check answer ⇩

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. What does the BFD value of 8 represent?

A. dead timer of BFD session

B. poll-interval of BFD session

C. hello timer of BFD session

D. number of BFD sessions

Check answer ⇩

New Question 6:

What are the two advantages of deploying cloud-based Cisco SD-WAN controllers? (Choose two.)

A. centralized control and data plane

B. infrastructure as a service

C. management of SLA

D. centralized raid storage of data

E. distributed authentication policies

Check answer ⇩

New Question 7:

Which two image formats are supported for controller codes? (Choose two.)

A. .nxos

B. .qcow2

C. .iso

D. .ova

E. .tgz

Check answer ⇩

New Question 8:

Which two platforms for the Cisco SD-WAN architecture are deployable in a hypervisor on-premises or in IAAS Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. CSR 1000v

B. ISR 4431

C. vEdge 100c

D. vEdge 2000

E. vEdge Cloud

Check answer ⇩

New Question 9:

How is the scalability of the Manage increased in Cisco SD-WAN Fabric?

A. Increase the bandwidth of the WAN link connected to the vManage

B. Increase licensing on the vManage

C. Deploy more than one vManage controllers on different physical server

D. Deploy multiple vManage controllers in a cluster

Check answer ⇩

New Question 10:

Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN control plane does architecture facilitate the storage of certificates and configurations for network components?

A. vSmart

B. WAN Edge

C. vManage

D. vBond

Check answer ⇩

New Question 11:

An engineer is troubleshooting a vEdge router and identifies a “DCONFAIL ? DTLS connection failure” message. What is the problem?

A. memory issue

B. certificate mismatch

C. organization mismatch

D. connectivity issue

Check answer ⇩

New Question 12:

An engineer is troubleshooting a certificate issue on vEdge. Which command is used to verify the validity of the certificates?

A. show control of local-properties

B. show control summary

C. show certificate installed

D. show certificate status

Check answer ⇩

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting a control connection issue. What does “connect” mean in this show control connections output?

A. Control connection is down

B. Control connection is up

C. Control connection attempt is in progress

D. Control connection is connected

Check answer ⇩

New Question 14:

A vEdge platform is sending VRRP advertisement messages every 10 seconds. Which value configures the router back to the default timer?

A. 2 seconds

B. 5 seconds

C. 1 second

D. 3 seconds

Check answer ⇩

New Question 15:

Which OSPF command makes the WAN Edge router a less preferred exit from a site with a dual WAN Edge design?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Check answer ⇩

…

Verify the answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

AE

D

C

A

D

BC

BD

AE

D

C

D

A

C

A

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350-801 CLCOR 350-801 Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies CCNP Collaboration Cisco

Use the latest 350-801 dumps to help you pass the Cisco CLCOR certification exam

admin July 16, 2022 0 Comments

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More detailed 350-801 CLCOR certification information:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 350-801
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)
Certification: CCNP Collaboration
Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $400 USD
Number of Questions: 90-110
350-801 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/350-801.html (Total Questions: 347 Q&A)

Cisco 350-801 exam questions online practice test:

Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?

A. Cisco IM and Presence node

B. Cisco Unified Border Element

C. Cisco Expressway

D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server

Question 2:

A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?

A. Attempt Forward routing rule

B. Alternate Extensions

C. Alternate Names

D. Mobile User

Question 3:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?

A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.

B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.

Question 4:

An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)

A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.

B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.

C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.

D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.

E. Voice packets are classified and marked.

Question 5:

A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end user

C. Active Directory

D. Cisco IM and Presence

Question 6:

What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?

A. Video is typically a variable bit rate.

B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements.

C. Video is typically a constant bit rate.

D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.

Question 7:

An engineer encounters third-party devices that do not support Cisco Discovery Protocol. What must be configured on the network to allow device discovery?

A. LACP

B. TFTP

C. LLDP

D. SNMP

Question 8:

An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with their own devices. One requirement is to keep that as simple as possible for end users. Which infrastructure element achieves these goals?

A. Cisco Express Mobility

B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E

C. Cisco Unified Border Element

D. Cisco Unified Instant Messaging and Presence

Question 9:

On which Cisco Unified Communications Manager nodes can the TFTP service be enabled?

A. any node

B. any two nodes

C. only nodes that have Cisco Unified CM service enabled

D. any subscriber nodes

You can configure the TFTP service on the first node or a subsequent node, but usually, you should configure it on the first node. For small systems, the TFTP server can coexist with a Cisco Unified Communications Manager on the same server.

Question 10:

Which issue causes slips on a PRI?

A. incorrect clock source

B. incorrect encapsulation

C. incorrectly configured time zone

D. change in the line code

Question 11:

Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?

A. clock source line

B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.

C. clocking source internal

D. clocking source network

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. This INVITE is sent to an endpoint that only supports G729. What must be done for this call to succeed?

A. Nothing: both sides support G.729.

B. Add a transcoder that supports G711ulaw and G.729.

C. Add a media termination point that supports G.711ulaw and G.729.

D. Nothing: both sides support payload type 101.

Question 13:

Which action prevents toll fraud in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Implement toll fraud restriction in the Cisco IOS router.

B. Implement route patterns in Cisco Unified CM.

C. Allow off-net to off-net transfers.

D. Configure ad hoc conference restriction.

Question 14:

A user forwards a corporate number to an international number. What are two methods to prevent this forwarded call? (Choose two.)

A. Set the Call Classification to OnNet for the international route pattern.

B. Block international dial patterns in the SIP trunk CSS.

C. Configure a Forced Authorization Code on the international route pattern.

D. Set Call Forward All CSS to restrict international dial patterns.

E. Check Route Next Hop By Calling Party Number on the international route pattern.

Question 15:

Calls are being delivered to the end user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?

A. route pattern

B. service parameters

C. IP phone

D. gateway

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

C

B

C

AE

C

A

C

B

A

D

B

D

BC

D

CCNP Collaboration certification includes: The core exam and Concentration exams, Cisco CLCOR certification exam belongs to the Core exam (350-501 SPCOR) and is unique.

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h13-624 HCIP-Storage V5.0 Huawei Huawei H13-624 Exam Dumps Huawei H13-624 Exam Questions Huawei H13-624 Free dumps Huawei HCIP-Storage

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QUESTION 1

If balancing policies on a Huawei OceanStor 9000 are disabled, balancing tasks are not generated in such scenarios as adding, deleting, and disabling nodes, adding disks, disk pre-failure, and slow disks. If balancing policies are enabled after node deletion, however, data balancing is automatically implemented.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Huawei hyper-converged storage supports parallel and fast data reconstruction. Data is fragmented in the resource pool. A disk failure triggers automatic and parallel reconstruction of the actual data by the entire resource pool without requiring hot spare disks.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Which of the following sequences is correct about the small I/O to write cache scenario of the multi-level cache technology of Huawei distributed storage?

(1) Data is written to write-ahead logging (WAL) based on the SSD cache and a write completion message is returned to the host.

(2) When the memory write cache reaches a certain watermark, data starts to be flushed disks.

(3) Data is written to the write cache based on random access memory (RAM).

(4) Small I/Os are written to the SSD cache of the local node first. After small I/Os are aggregated into a large I/O, the large I/O is written to an HDD.

A. (3) (1) (2) (4)
B. (3) (2) (1) (4)
C. (1) (2) (3) (4)
D. (3) (4) (1) (2)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Which of the following statements about Huawei OceanStor 1880 V5 Kunpeng is correct?

A. Supports front-end and back-end interconnect I/O modules and uses a fully interconnected hardware architecture.

B. Supports SmartMatrix 3.0 to balance cache mirroring and service load.

C. Supports upgrade with a single FC link without being perceived by host multipathing.

D. Tolerates failure of three out of four controllers.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

At the time of creation, a SmartThin LUN does not occupy storage space.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

A live gaming platform uses the FlashLink multi-core technology of Huawei OceanStor all-flash storage for its services.
Which of the following describes core grouping in CPUs?

A. A request is processed by one core until its completion. Cores are lock-free to avoid frequent switchovers among the cores.

B. Read/write I/Os are deployed in different core groups from other types of I/Os to avoid mutual interference.

C. The controller works with SSDs to identify hot and cold data in the system, improve garbage collection efficiency, and prolong the service life of SSDs.

D. vNodes are bound to CPUs to reduce the overheads for scheduling and transmission across CPUs.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

A company deploys a Huawei distributed storage system to build a new online transaction system. The company deploys database application software of the transaction system on virtual machines (VMs). Multiple data volumes are mounted to VM. What are the best methods to ensure data restoration reliability?

A. All volume snapshots must be created at the same time.
B. A snapshot and a consistency snapshot comply with the dependency consistency principle.
C. Multiple data volumes used by the database do not have to use the consistency snapshot.
D. Different data volumes need to be restored in sequence.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Assuming a setup with 1 host (A), 1 controller (B), 1 switch (C), and 1 disk enclosure (D). The correct order of powering on in a new installation is:

A. A-B-C-D
B. D-C-B-A
C. A-C-B-D
D. D-B-C-A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

In storage planning and design, which of the following is NOT involved in service planning?

A. Basic service
B. Capacity planning
C. Value-added function
D. Network planning

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which of the following statements about the bucket is incorrect?

A. A bucket is a container for storing objects. It can be considered as a directory that can be accessed through the network.

B. Buckets can be nested, thereby avoiding complicated container structure.

C. The function of a bucket is similar to that of a container. Both of them can be accessed through the network.

D. Lifecycle management of a bucket means automatically deleting objects from buckets after a certain period of time-based on configuration rules without client intervention.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

A colleague suggests using SmartMigration to improve write performance on certain LUNs. This is:

A. Not possible in any situation.
B. Possible in all situations.
C. Possible in some situations.
D. Only a temporary solution.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Huawei OceanStor Distributed Storage must be equipped with a minimum of three nodes that can vary in type.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

In the case of the OptiX OSN equipment, when the standby board is normal, which of the following operations does not cause the active/standby switching of the cross-connect board or clock board?

A. Delete the active cross-connect board or clock board logically.
B. Open the upper and lower ejector levers of the active board at the same time.
C. Deliver the active/standby switchover command.
D. Perform a cold reset on the cross-connect or clock board.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which of the following protection schemes require the APS protocol?

A. ODUk SPRing protection
B. ODUk SNCP
C. SW SNCP
D. 1:1 optical line protection

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Which of the following statements about MPLS is wrong?

A. MPLS has two planes: the control plane and the forwarding plane. The control plane is connection-oriented, the forwarding plane is connectionless.

B. MPLS is not a service or application. It is a standard routine and switching platform that supports various upper-layer protocols and services.

C. In the packet transport field, the MPLS technology is mainly used to construct tunnels to carry various types of services (for example, TDM, ATM, and Ethernet) transmitted by PWE3 to implement end-toend transmission of services on packet networks.

D. MPLS packet forwarding is based on labels.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which of the following is not included in an ASON network?

A. ASON Domain
B. ASON NE
C. SC
D. TE Link

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which of the following is not a PW APS switching condition?

A. A warm reset is performed on the board.
B. The board software is faulty.
C. MPLS_PW_SF
D. A cold reset is performed on the board.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

What are the wavelengths of the OSC channel used by the ST2 board?

A. 1510nm
B. 1491nm
C. 1511nm
D. 1471 nm

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

When the grooming service level of the line board is ODUflex, which of the following protection schemes can be supported?

A. ODUk SPRing protection
B. Tributary SNCP
C. SW SNCP
D. ODUk SNCP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Which of the following is not a precaution after board replacement?

A. Record the settings of jumpers and DIP switches on the board.
B. For functional units that have backups, check whether the switchover is normal.
C. Check the indicator blinking status of the board and ensure that the board works properly.
D. Ensure that no abnormal alarm.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

The LOA board can implement the L2 scheduling function of the Ethernet in OSN 1800.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which of the following trails can be configured on the NMS?

A. OTS
B. ODUk
C. client
D. OCh

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Loopback is a common operation for routine maintenance and troubleshooting. Which of the following statements about loopback operations are incorrect?

A. The hardware loopback is performed by using the fiber jumper or self-loop cable to perform the loopback on the optical port or electrical port.

B. When performing a hardware loopback on an optical port, you need to add an optical attenuator.

C. After the out loop is performed, the signals are transmitted to the internal.

D. After the loop is performed, the signals are transmitted to the external.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Which of the following statements about the electrical-layer overhead processing source function are correct?

A. The OPUk performs client signal mapping, frequency adjustment, and rate adaptation in the transmit direction.

B. The ODUkT calculates the BIP-8 and writes it into the TCMi.

C. The OTUk calculates BIP-8 and writes it into SM, GCC0, FAS, and MAFS.

D. the ODUkP calculates overheads such as BIP-8, PM, and GCC1/2.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

The histogram operation of the image is to count the distribution frequency of the gray value of the whole image. When the illumination of the image is uneven, the operation effect of the histogram will be affected, and it is necessary to use an improved algorithm for image processing.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is not a common method of text vectorization?

A. EM
B. CBOW
C. BDOW
D. DM

QUESTION 3

What are the difficulties of named entity recognition?

A. The length is uncertain
B. The composition of named entities is complex
C. Numerous types of named entities
D. Complex nesting situation

QUESTION 4

Which of the following steps in the MFC extraction process?

A. Add window
B. Framing
C. Fourier transform
D. Cepstrum analysis

QUESTION 5

The Gaussian filter of the same size has better denoising effect than the mean filter.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

QUESTION 6

Named entity recognition refers to recognizing entities with specific meaning in text.

A. Name
B. Place name
C. Organization name
D. Time
E. Date

QUESTION 7

The 19 in VGG19 represents the subordinate sum of the number of layers in the network?

A. Pooling layer
B. Convolutional layer
C. Input layer
D. Fully connected layer

QUESTION 8

NNLM In the model, what is the activation function used by the network output layer?

A. Sigmoid
B. ReLU
C. Softmax
D. Tanh

QUESTION 9

What is the main task of syntactic analysis?

A. Participle
B. Syntactic structure analysis
C. Semantic analysis
D. Dependency analysis

QUESTION 10

What algorithm engines are supported by ModelArts training assignments? (Multiple Choice)

A. PyTorch
B. MXNet
C. Spark MLlib
D. TensorFlow

QUESTION 11

What is the use process of ModelArts automatic learning? (Single choice)

A. Deploy online -> Model training -> Data annotation
B. Model training -> data annotation -> deployment online
C. Data annotation -> model training -> deployment online
D. Data annotation -> deployment online -> model training

QUESTION 12

In order to make the feature map consistent with the input image, you can use the filling method to add an all 0 and a
frame to the input image and then calculate.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

QUESTION 13

When applying image processing technology, it is necessary to locate the task of image classification, target detection,
image segmentation and target tracking, which cannot be mixed with algorithms.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Publish the answer

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

A

ABCD

A

ABCD

BD

B

BD

ABCD

C

A

B

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Candidates for this exam should have subject matter expertise implementing, managing, and monitoring an organization’s Microsoft Azure environment.

Responsibilities for an Azure Administrator include implementing, managing, and monitoring identity, governance, storage, compute, and virtual networks in a cloud environment, plus provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources, when needed.

An Azure Administrator often serves as part of a larger team dedicated to implementing your organization’s cloud infrastructure.

A candidate for this exam should have at least six months of hands-on experience administering Azure, along with a strong understanding of core Azure services, Azure workloads, security, and governance. In addition, this role should have experience using PowerShell, Azure CLI, Azure portal, and Azure Resource Manager templates.

Skills measured

Manage Azure identities and governance (15-20%)
Implement and manage storage (10-15%)
Deploy and manage Azure compute resources (25-30%)
Configure and manage virtual networking (30-35%)
Monitor and back up Azure resources (10-15%)

Latest Updates Microsoft az-104 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains the following resources:
*
A virtual network that has a subnet named Subnet1
*
Two network security groups (NSGs) named NSG-VM1 and NSG-Subnet1
*
A virtual machine named VM1 that has the required Windows Server configurations to allow Remote Desktop
connections NSG-Subnet1 has the default inbound security rules only. NSG-VM1 has the default inbound security rules
and the following custom inbound security rule:
*
Priority: 100
*
Source: Any

Source port range: * * Destination: *
*
Destination port range: 3389
*
Protocol: UDP
*
Action: Allow
VM1 connects to Subnet1. NSG1-VM1 is associated with the network interface of VM1. NSG-Subnet1 is associated with Subnet1.
You need to be able to establish Remote Desktop connections from the internet to VM1. Solution: You add an inbound
security rule to NSG-Subnet1 that allows connections from the Any source to the VirtualNetwork destination for port
range
3389 and uses the TCP protocol. You remove NSG-VM1 from the network interface of VM1.
Does this meet the goal?
A.
Yes
B.
No

Correct Answer: B

The default port for RDP is TCP port 3389. A rule to permit RDP traffic must be created automatically when you create
your VM.
Note on NSG-Subnet1: Azure routes network traffic between all subnets in a virtual network, by default.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/troubleshooting/troubleshoot-rdp- connection

QUESTION 2

You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.com. Adatum.com contains the groups in the
following table.

You create two user accounts that are configured as shown in the following table.

To which groups do User1 and User2 belong? To answer. select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE:
Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Group 1 only First rule applies Box 2: Group1 and Group2 only Both membership rules apply. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/collections/create- collections

QUESTION 3

You need to the appropriate sizes for the Azure virtual for Server2. What should you do? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Create a Recovery Services vault
Create a Recovery Services vault on the Azure Portal.
Box 2: Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider
Azure Site Recovery can be used to manage the migration of on-premises machines to Azure. Scenario: Migrate the virtual
machines hosted on Server1 and Server2 to Azure.
Server2 has the Hyper-V host role.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-on-premises-azure

QUESTION 4

You are evaluating the name resolution for the virtual machines after the planned implementation of the Azure
networking infrastructure. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select
No.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5

You have an Azure subscription that contains a user account named User1. You need to ensure that User1 can assign
a policy to the tenant root management group. What should you do?
A. Assign the Owner role to User1, and then instruct User1 to configure access management for Azure resources.
B. Assign the Global administrator role to User1, and then instruct User1 to configure access management for Azure
resources.
C. Assign the Global administrator role to User1, and then modify the default conditional access policies.
D. Assign the Owner role to User1, and then modify the default conditional access policies.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

You have an Azure subscription that contains the following users in an Azure Active Directory tenant named
contoso.onmicrosoft.com:

User1 creates a new Azure Active Directory tenant named external.contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You need to create new
user accounts on external.contoso.com.onmicrosoft.com. Solution: You instruct User1 to create user accounts.
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

Only a global administrator can add users to this tenant.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/organizations/accounts/add-users-to-azure-ad

QUESTION 7

You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure file share. You have an on-premises server named Server1 that
runs Windows Server 2016. You plan to set up Azure File Sync between Server1 and the Azure file share. You need to
prepare the subscription for the planned Azure File Sync. Which two actions should you perform in the Azure
subscription? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct targets. Each action may be used once, more than
once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

First action: Create a Storage Sync Service
The deployment of Azure File Sync starts with placing a Storage Sync Service resource into a resource group of your
selected subscription.
Second action: Run Server Registration
Registering your Windows Server with a Storage Sync Service establishes a trust relationship between your server (or
cluster) and the Storage Sync Service. A server can only be registered to one Storage Sync Service and can sync with
other servers and Azure file shares associated with the same Storage Sync Service.
The Server Registration UI should open automatically after installation of the Azure File Sync agent.

Incorrect Answers:
Not Install the Azure File Sync agent: The Azure File Sync agent is a downloadable package that enables Windows
Server to be synced with an Azure file share.

QUESTION 8

You have an Azure subscription that contains the following users in an Azure Active Directory tenant named
contoso.onmicrosoft.com:

User1 creates a new Azure Active Directory tenant named external.contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You need to create new
user accounts on external.contoso.com.onmicrosoft.com. Solution: You instruct User3 to create user accounts.
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

Only a global administrator can add users to this tenant.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/organizations/accounts/add-users-to-azure-ad

QUESTION 9

You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Availability Set named WEBPROD-AS- USE2 as shown in the following exhibit.

You add 14 virtual machines to WEBPROD-AS-USE2.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10

You need to prepare the environment to ensure that the web administrators can deploy the web apps as quickly as
possible.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11

You have several Azure virtual machines on a virtual network named VNet1. You configure an Azure Storage account
as shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Box 1: always Endpoint status is enabled. Box 2: Never After you configure firewall and virtual network settings for your
storage account, select Allow trusted Microsoft services to access this storage account as an exception to enable Azure
Backup service to access the network restricted storage account.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-how-to-use-files-windows https://azure.microsoft.com/enus/blog/azure-backup-now-supports-storage-accounts-secured- with-azure-storage-firewalls-and-virtual-networks/

QUESTION 12

You are evaluating the connectivity between the virtual machines after the planned implementation of the Azure
networking infrastructure. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select
No.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13

You plan to create an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that will be configured as shown in the following exhibit. The
planned disk configurations for VM1 are shown in the following exhibit.

100 Azure virtual machines
You need to ensure that VM1 can be created in an Availability Zone. Which two settings should you modify? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Use managed disks
B. Availability options
C. OS disk type
D. Size
E. Image

Correct Answer: AE

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H12-821 exam questions online exam practice

QUESTION 1

Which Of the following IEEE 802.11 standards is also known as Wi-Fi 6?

A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11ax
D. 802.11b

QUESTION 2

Which of the following attacks is not the network layer attack?

A. IP spoofing attack
B. ICMP attack
C. Smurf attack
D. ARP spoofing attack

QUESTION 3

CORRECT TEXT Compress the 2001:0DBB:B8:0000:C030:0000:0000:09A0:CDEF address.___________(if the
answer contains letters, capitalize them.)
Correct Answer: pending

QUESTION 4

ON a stateful inspection Firewall where there is no session table, when the status detection mechanism is enabled and
the second packet (CYN+ACK) of 3-way hadshakes reaches the firewall. Which of the following statements is true?

A. If the firewall security policy permits packets to pass, the session table is created.
B. By default, when status detection is disabled and the permit policy is configured packets can pass.
C. Packets must pass the firewall, and a session table is established.
D. If the firewall security policy permits packets to pass, the packets can pass the firewall.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following statements regarding an IP prefix are true?

A. An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and cannot match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the
same time.

B. An IP prefix filter cannot be used to filter data packets.

C. An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and can match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the
same time.

D. An IP prefix filter can be used to filter data packets.

QUESTION 6

Preferences of routing protocols determine the sequence In which a router selects a route among routes to the same
destination /earned through different routing protocols.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

QUESTION 7

Which of the following statements regarding different LSA types is false?

A. LS Request packets contain only LS Type, LS ID, and Advertising Router.

B. LS Ack packets contain complete LSA information.

C. DD packets contain only LSA summary information, including LS Type, LS ID, Advertising Router, and LS Sequence
Number.

D. LS Update packets contain complete LSA information.

QUESTION 8

A local router runs IS-IS and its command output is shown in the following figure. Which of the following statements is
true?

h12-821 q8

A. The circuit level of S4/0/0 is Level-1.
B. S4/0/0 supports IPv6.
C. S4/0/0 sends IIH packets at the interval of 30s.
D. The cost of S4/0/0 is 20.

QUESTION 9

Which of the following statements regarding the stateful inspection firewall is true?

A. When the stateful inspection firewall checks packets, packets of one same connection are not correlated.

B. Because UDP is a connectionless protocol, so the stateful inspection firewall cannot match UDP packets with the
status table.

C. The stateful inspection firewall only needs to match the first data packet against a rule, and the subsequent packets
of the connection are matched directly in the state table.

D. The stateful inspection firewall needs to match the rules for each incoming packet.

QUESTION 10

DRAG DROP
Drag the following VRRP states to the corresponding working mechanisms.
Select and Place:

h12-821 q10

Correct Answer:

h12-821 q10-1

QUESTION 11

DRAG DROP
What is the correct procedure for a VLAN pool to assign terminals to VLANs. Select and Place:

h12-821 q11

Correct Answer:

h12-821 q11-1

QUESTION 12

The Interface \P address and VRRP virtual IP address can be the same.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Verify answer:

Q1	Q2	Q3	Q4	Q5	Q6	Q7	Q8	Q9	Q10	Q11	Q12
A	D	pending	A	D	B	D	C	C	IAMGE	IMAGE	A

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