Lead4Pass releases new Cisco 010-151 dumps, revised and re-edited, providing 137 exam questions and answers with annotations and analysis to ensure successful passing of the Cisco 010-151 DCTECH Exam.
Cisco 010-151 exam (Cisco Data Center certification exam) is one of the Cisco Certified Technicians (CCT) that focuses on the skills required for on-site support and maintenance of Cisco unified computing systems and servers. New Cisco 010-151 dumps completely covers all exam content. So! Download Cisco 010-151 dumps with PDF and VCE here: https://www.leads4pass.com/010-151.html (PDF&VCE) Simulation learning of real scenarios to ensure you 100% success.
New Cisco 010-151 dumps exam questions online practice test:
At the interface configuration prompt, which command returns you to the main configuration prompt?
A. end
B. clear
C. quit
D. exit
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
Cisco NX-OS has added the ability to use which type of custom scripting to help manage user networks.
A. C++
B. Collective
C. SQL
D. Python
Correct Answer: D
Question 3:
Which protocol does TFTP typically use for transport?
A. RSVP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. UDP
Correct Answer: D
Question 4:
What are the two components of a WAN connection? (Choose two.)
A. CSU/DSU
B. router
C. bridge
D. hub
E. switch
Correct Answer: AB
Question 5:
What does Cisco use for Return Materials Authorization tracking of field-replaceable parts?
A. product number
B. serial number
C. RMA number
D. FRU number
Correct Answer: C
Question 6:
Which two pieces of information are displayed when you use the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 address
B. keepalive
C. Layer 3 address
D. encapsulation type
E. interface status
Correct Answer: CE
Question 7:
Which command sends an echo request packet to the target host and then waits for an echo response message?
A. echo
B. access
C. ping
D. connect
Correct Answer: C
Question 8:
The pins on an RJ-45 cable plug are numbered from 1 through 8. When the metal pins of the plug are facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets of pins are looped on an RJ-45 56K loopback plug? (Choose two.)
A. pins 2 and 7
B. pins 2 and 8
C. pins 2 and 5
D. pins 1 and 7
E. pins 1 and 4
Correct Answer: CE
Question 9:
What is the line speed of a DS0 in North America?
A. 16 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 128 kbps
Correct Answer: C
Question 10:
Which command provides detailed information about the components that are installed on a router, such as the model, PID, and serial number?
A. show chassis
B. show items
C. show inventory
D. show router
Correct Answer: C
Question 11:
Which type of Cisco console cable is used to connect a laptop to the console port on a Cisco router?
A. straight-through
B. fiber
C. crossover
D. rollover
Correct Answer: D
Question 12:
Which type of memory is used to permanently store Cisco IOS Software?
A. NVRAM
B. flash
C. SRAM
D. DRAM
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
What are the two purposes of a USB thumb drive? (Choose two.)
A. to save the system log
B. to copy configuration files to and from a PC
C. to save router hardware information
D. to copy IOS images to and from a PC
E. to increase system memory size
Correct Answer: BD
Question 14:
Which layer of the OSI model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
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Share part of the topic exam questions from Lead4Pass Cisco 500-560 dumps
What options or options can customers use for multi-site management with Mobility Express?
A. WebUl
B. Prime 3.4 or DNA Center
C. mobile app
D. WebUI or mobile app
Correct Answer: B
Topic Question 2:
What is the key architectural component that allows Cisco Meraki\’s data centers to be fully HIPAA and PCI-compliant?
A. non-existent command line interface
B. controller and server-free design
C. Layer 7 application fingerprinting
D. out-of-band control plane
Correct Answer: D
Topic Question 3:
What is one advantage of the Umbrella branch package?
A. prevent already-infected devices from connecting to command and control
B. prevent guest or corporate users from connecting to malicious domains and IP addresses
C. deploy the branch package on a Cisco ISR4K router in 4 easy steps
D. no client-side configuration is required
Correct Answer: B
Topic Question 4:
Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?
A. Cisco DNA Assurance
B. Cisco ACI Anywhere
C. Cisco DNA Spaces
D. Cisco HyperFlex
Correct Answer: A
Topic Question 5:
What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?
A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers
B. providing AMP support
C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center
D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard
Correct Answer: D
Topic Question 6:
Which Catalyst 9800 series controller would you recommend for small branch and campus deployments of up to 200 APs?
A. Catalyst 9800-SW
B. Catalyst 9800-CL
C. Catalyst 9800-40
D. Catalyst 9800-80
Correct Answer: A
Topic Question 7:
Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?
A. Sense, Act, and Partner
B. View, Interpret, and Act
C. See, Anticipate, and Respond
D. See, Act, and Extend
Correct Answer: D
Topic Question 8:
Which portfolio of Cisco routers supports Aggregation?
A. CSR 1000V
B. ASR 1000
C. ISR 4000
D. ISR 900
Correct Answer: C
Topic Question 9:
Which is an SKU for Mobility Express?
A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9
B. AlR-AP28021-K9
C. AIR-AP18151-K9C
D. AlR-AP18521-K9
Correct Answer: C
Topic Question 10:
What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?
A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments
B. modularity for investment protection
C. Cisco CleanAir
D. industry-leading hyper location
Correct Answer: D
Topic Question 11:
What is one benefit of the Cisco 1100 ISR router over the 900 ISR router for mid-size organizations?
A. The 1100 ISR provides support for xDSL types of WAN interfaces
B. The 1100 ISR is compatible with all Cisco switches.
C. The 1100 ISR provides APIC support.
D. The 1100 ISR includes a built-in firewall and advanced QOS features.
Correct Answer: C
Topic Question 12:
What is one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?
A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard
B. remote wipe any device on the network
C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth
D. enable virtual stacking
Correct Answer: A
Topic Question 13:
What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?
A. zoom lens
B. motion-based retention
C. low bit rate and frame rate
D. high definition
Correct Answer: B
Topic Question 14:
Which of these statements clearly depicts increasing sophistication in the security threat landscape?
A. 65% of attacks evade existing security tools
B. 66% of connected devices are mobile
C. 28% of top security constraints are caused by product compatibility
D. 25% of users spend their worktime off the network
Correct Answer: A
Topic Question 15:
What is Cisco Switch Selector?
A. a tool that can help customers compare options and identify the right switch for their needs
B. a dashboard view of all an enterprise\’s switches
C. a configuration tool that helps small business customers rapidly deploy a new switch
D. a cloud-based solution to optimize network performance
Correct Answer: A
…
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Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?
A. physical
B. transport
C. network
D. MAC
Correct Answer: C
Question 10:
Which two commands set the configuration register value? (Choose two.)
A. rommon>confreg 0x2102
B. router(config)#confreg 0x2102
C. rommon>config-register 0x2102
D. router(config)#configuration-register 0x2102
E. router(config)#config-register 0x2102
Correct Answer: AE
Question 11:
From the enable mode, which command loads the configuration during the password recovery process on a Cisco router?
A. load_helper
B. configure terminal
C. copy running-config startup-config
D. copy startup-config running-config
Correct Answer: D
Question 12:
Which device is a DTE device?
A. CSU/DSU
B. router
C. cable modem
D. DSL modem
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
What does Cisco use for Return Materials Authorization tracking of field-replaceable parts?
A. product number
B. serial number
C. RMA number
D. FRU number
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
Which type of port is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?
A. rollover
B. fiber
C. straight-through
D. crossover
Correct Answer: C
Question 15:
ESD is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials, caused by direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field. Which three tools are used to avoid ESD? (Choose three.)
A. negative static bag
B. antistatic mat
C. ESD wrist strap
D. negative static mat
E. antistatic bag
F. latex gloves
Correct Answer: BCE
…
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Lead4Pass updates Cisco 400-007 dumps throughout the year, and more importantly, shares a part of the exam questions and answers for free each time, providing candidates with online practice tests! The May 400-007 dumps have been updated and verified as authentic and valid by the Cisco team! Now! Candidates can practice 400-007 test questions online! Or use the Lead4Pass 400-007 dumps with PDF and VCE formats: https://www.leads4pass.com/400-007.html (contains 270 most recent exam questions and answers!).
Cisco 400-007 Exam Questions Online Practice Test:
From
Number of exam questions
Exam name
Exam code
Lead4Pass
18
Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE Written)
400-007
QUESTION 1:
IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches.
Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes?
A. performance monitoring B. security C. observation of critical links D. capacity planning
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2:
What are two common approaches to analyzing and designing networks? (Choose two.)
A. bottom-up approach B. high-low security approach C. top-down approach D. left-right approach E. three-tier approach
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3:
Company XYZ uses an office model where the employees can use any open desk and plug their laptops in. They want to authenticate the end users using their domain username and password before allowing them access to the network.
The design must also accommodate the ability to control traffic within the same group or subnet if a macro (or micro) segmentation-based model is adopted in the future.
Which protocol can be recommended for this design to authenticate end users?
The Company XYZ network is experiencing attacks against its router. Which type of Control Plane Protection must be used on the router to protect all control plane IP traffic that is destined directly for one of the router interfaces?
A. Control Plane Protection host subinterface B. Control Plane Protection main interface C. Control Plane Protection transit subinterface D. Control Plane Protection CEF-exception subinterface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5:
Which three components are part of the foundational information security principles of the CIA triad? (Choose three.)
A. cryptography B. confidentiality C. C. authorization D. Identification E. integrity F. availability
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 6:
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7:
Which two mechanisms avoid suboptimal routing in a network with dynamic mutual redistribution between multiple OSPFv2 and EIGRP boundaries? (Choose two.)
A. AD manipulation B. matching OSPF external routes C. route tagging D. route tagging E. route filtering F. matching EIGRP process ID
A service provider recently migrated to an SD-WAN solution for delivering WAN connections to its customers. One of the main challenges with the SD-WAN deployment is that branch site volume increases every year, which causes management complexity.
Which action resolves the issue?
A. Implement a scalable network management system to manage all sites. B. Adopt a well-structured SD-WAN service management lifecycle model C. Build a service orchestration platform on top of the network controller D. Set up a dedicated team to monitor and provision new customers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9:
Which two aspects are considered when designing a dual hub dual DMVPN cloud topology? (Choose two )
A. will only work with single-tier headend architecture B. hub sites must connect to both DMVPN clouds C. recommended for high availability D. spoke-to-spoke traffic will transit the hub unless spokes exchange dynamic routing directly E. requires all sites to have dual Internet connections
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10:
A network architect in an enterprise is designing a network policy for certain database applications. The goal of the policy is to allow these applications to access the internet directly, whereas other user and network applications that communicate with systems or users outside their own network must be routed through the data center.
The focus is on achieving higher availability and a better user experience for the database applications, but switching between different network paths based on performance characteristics must be supported.
A healthcare provider discovers that the protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data.
Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue?
A. technical and physical access control B. administrative security management processes C. physical device and media control D. technical integrity and transmission security
There are multiple trees in the Cisco FabricPath All switches in the Layer 2 fabric share the same view of each tree. Which two concepts describe how the multicast traffic is load-balanced across this topology? (Choose two )
A. A specific (S.G) traffic is not load-balanced
B. All trees are utilized at the same level of the traffic rate
C. Every leaf node assigns the specific (S.G) to the same tree.
D. A specific (S.G) multicast traffic is load-balanced across all trees due to better link utilization efficiency.
E. The multicast traffic is generally load-balanced across all trees
Correct Answer: BD
Question 13:
An IT service provider is upgrading network infrastructure to comply with PCI security standards. The network team finds that 802.1X and VPN authentication based on locally- significant certificates are not available on some legacy phones.
Which workaround solution meets the requirement?
A. Replace legacy phones with new phones because legacy phones will lose trust if the certificate is renewed.
B. Enable phone VPN authentication based on end-user username and password.
C. Temporarily allow fallback to TLS 1.0 when using certificates and then upgrade the software on legacy phones.
D. Use authentication-based clear text passwords with no EAP-MD5 on legacy phones.
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Which two characteristics are associated with 802 1s? (Choose two)
A. 802.1s supports up to 1024 instances of 802.1
B. 802.1 s is a Cisco enhancement to 802.1w.
C. 802.1s provides for faster convergence over 802 1D and PVST+.
D. CPU and memory requirements are the highest of all spanning-tree STP implementations.
E. 802.1s map multiple VLANs to the same spanning-tree instance
Correct Answer: CE
Question 15:
A healthcare provider discovers that the protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue?
Which actions are performed at the distribution layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose two)
A. Fast transport
B. Reliability
C. QoS classification and marking the boundary
D. Fault isolation
E. Redundancy and load balancing
Correct Answer: DE
Question 17:
Two routers R1 and R2 are directly connected through an Ethernet link. Both routers are running OSPF over the Ethernet link and OSPF has been registered with BFD. R1 has been set up to transmit BFD at a 50 ms interval, but R2 can receive only at a 100 ms rate due to platform limitations. What does this mean?
A. After the initial timer exchange. R2 sets its transmission rate to the R1 Desired Min TX interval
B. After the initial timer exchange. R1 sets its transmission rate to the R2 Required Min RX interval
C. Timers renegotiate indefinitely, so the timer exchange phase never converges
D. R2 sets the P-bit on all BFD control packets until R2 sends a packet with the F-bit set
Correct Answer: B
Question 18:
Which solution component helps to achieve comprehensive threat protection and compliance for migration to multi-cloud SDX architectures?
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Question 1:
Examine This FortiGate configuration:
Examine the output of the following debug command:
Based on the diagnostic outputs above, how is FortiGate handling the traffic for new sessions that require inspection?
A. It is allowed, but with no inspection
B. It is allowed and inspected as long as the inspection is flow based
C. It is dropped.
D. It is allowed and inspected, as long as the only inspection required is an antivirus.
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A shows the system performance output. Exhibit B shows a FortiGate configured with the default configuration of high memory usage thresholds. Based on the system performance output, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Administrators can access FortiGate only through the console port.
B. FortiGate has entered conserve mode.
C. FortiGate will start sending all files to FortiSandbox for inspection.
D. Administrators cannot change the configuration.
Which three pieces of information does FortiGate use to identify the hostname of the SSL server when SSL certificate inspection is enabled? (Choose three.)
A. The subject field in the server certificate
B. The serial number in the server certificate
C. The server name indication (SNI) extension in the client hello message
D. The subject alternative name (SAN) field in the server certificate
Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a web browser to trust a web server certificate signed by a third-party CA?
A. The public key of the web server certificate must be installed on the browser.
B. The web-server certificate must be installed on the browser.
C. The CA certificate that signed the web-server certificate must be installed on the browser.
D. The private key of the CA certificate that signed the browser certificate must be installed on the browser.
Correct Answer: C
Question 5:
A FortiGate is operating in NAT mode and configured with two virtual LAN (VLAN) sub-interfaces added to the physical interface.
Statements about the VLAN subinterfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets.
A. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets.
B. The two VLAN sub-interfaces must have different VLAN IDs.
C. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they belong to different VDOMs.
D. The two VLAN subinterfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: B
FortiGate_Infrastructure_6.0_Study_Guide_v2-Online.pdf ?gt; page 147 “Multiple VLANs can coexist in the same physical interface provide they have different VLAN ID”
Question 6:
How does FortiGate act when using SSL VPN in web mode?
An administrator has configured a route-based IPsec VPN between two FortiGate devices. Which statement about this IPsec VPN configuration is true?
A. A phase 2 configuration is not required.
B. This VPN cannot be used as part of a hub-and-spoke topology.
C. A virtual IPsec interface is automatically created after the phase 1 configuration is completed.
D. The IPsec firewall policies must be placed at the top of the list.
Correct Answer: C
In a route-based configuration, FortiGate automatically adds a virtual interface with the VPN name (Infrastructure Study Guide, 206)
Question 11:
Examine this PAC file configuration.
Which of the following statements is true? (Choose two.)
A. Browsers can be configured to retrieve this PAC file from the FortiGate.
B. Any web request to the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet is allowed to bypass the proxy.
C. All requests not made to Fortinet.com or the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet, have to go through altproxy.corp.com: 8060.
D. Any web request fortinet.com is allowed to bypass the proxy.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 12:
Which two inspection modes can you use to configure a firewall policy on a profile-based next-generation firewall (NGFW)? (Choose two.)
A. Proxy-based inspection
B. Certificate inspection
C. Flow-based inspection
D. Full Content inspection
Correct Answer: AC
Question 13:
Refer to the exhibit.
In the network shown in the exhibit, the web client cannot connect to the HTTP web server. The administrator runs the FortiGate built-in sniffer and gets the output as shown in the exhibit.
What should the administrator do next to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Run a sniffer on the web server.
B. Capture the traffic using an external sniffer connected to port 1.
C. Execute another sniffer in the FortiGate, this time with the filter “host 10.0.1.10”
D. Execute a debug flow.
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
Which of the following SD-WAN load calancing method uses interface weight value to distribute traffic? (Choose two.)
What types of traffic and attacks can be blocked by a web application firewall (WAF) profile? (Choose three.)
A. Traffic to botnet servers
B. Traffic to inappropriate websites
C. Server information disclosure attacks
D. Credit card data leaks
E. SQL injection attacks
Correct Answer: CDE
…
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