Latest Lead4Pass Cisco 500-560 dumps Update Sharing

admin June 28, 2023 0 Comments

Lead4Pass Cisco 500-560 dumps updated, containing 50 latest topic exam questions and answers, reviewed, corrected, and actually verified by the Lead4Pass Cisco team to meet the Cisco 500-560 certification exam requirements!

Now! Download Cisco 500-560 dumps with PDF and VCE: https://www.lead4pass.com/500-560.html, practice completing Cisco 500-560 topic exam questions. 100% Guaranteed Success on Your Cisco 500-560 Exam!

Share part of the topic exam questions from Lead4Pass Cisco 500-560 dumps

Topic Question 1:

What options or options can customers use for multi-site management with Mobility Express?

A. WebUl

B. Prime 3.4 or DNA Center

C. mobile app

D. WebUI or mobile app

Correct Answer: B

Topic Question 2:

What is the key architectural component that allows Cisco Meraki\’s data centers to be fully HIPAA and PCI-compliant?

A. non-existent command line interface

B. controller and server-free design

C. Layer 7 application fingerprinting

D. out-of-band control plane

Correct Answer: D

Topic Question 3:

What is one advantage of the Umbrella branch package?

A. prevent already-infected devices from connecting to command and control

B. prevent guest or corporate users from connecting to malicious domains and IP addresses

C. deploy the branch package on a Cisco ISR4K router in 4 easy steps

D. no client-side configuration is required

Correct Answer: B

Topic Question 4:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Correct Answer: A

Topic Question 5:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Correct Answer: D

Topic Question 6:

Which Catalyst 9800 series controller would you recommend for small branch and campus deployments of up to 200 APs?

A. Catalyst 9800-SW

B. Catalyst 9800-CL

C. Catalyst 9800-40

D. Catalyst 9800-80

Correct Answer: A

Topic Question 7:

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner

B. View, Interpret, and Act

C. See, Anticipate, and Respond

D. See, Act, and Extend

Correct Answer: D

Topic Question 8:

Which portfolio of Cisco routers supports Aggregation?

A. CSR 1000V

B. ASR 1000

C. ISR 4000

D. ISR 900

Correct Answer: C

Topic Question 9:

Which is an SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Correct Answer: C

Topic Question 10:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Correct Answer: D

Topic Question 11:

What is one benefit of the Cisco 1100 ISR router over the 900 ISR router for mid-size organizations?

A. The 1100 ISR provides support for xDSL types of WAN interfaces

B. The 1100 ISR is compatible with all Cisco switches.

C. The 1100 ISR provides APIC support.

D. The 1100 ISR includes a built-in firewall and advanced QOS features.

Correct Answer: C

Topic Question 12:

What is one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard

B. remote wipe any device on the network

C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth

D. enable virtual stacking

Correct Answer: A

Topic Question 13:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Correct Answer: B

Topic Question 14:

Which of these statements clearly depicts increasing sophistication in the security threat landscape?

A. 65% of attacks evade existing security tools

B. 66% of connected devices are mobile

C. 28% of top security constraints are caused by product compatibility

D. 25% of users spend their worktime off the network

Correct Answer: A

Topic Question 15:

What is Cisco Switch Selector?

A. a tool that can help customers compare options and identify the right switch for their needs

B. a dashboard view of all an enterprise\’s switches

C. a configuration tool that helps small business customers rapidly deploy a new switch

D. a cloud-based solution to optimize network performance

Correct Answer: A

…

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Cisco 100-490 RSTECH Exam Solutions | Latest 100-490 Dumps

admin June 5, 2023 0 Comments

Lead4Pass 100-490 Dumps contains 60 latest exam questions and answers, covering more than 90% of Cisco 100-490 “Supporting Cisco Routing & Switching Network Devices! For your best Exam Solutions.

Lead4Pass 100-490 exam questions and answers are updated throughout the year! Guaranteed to be available anytime! Download 100-490 Dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/100-490.html
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Here you can always get more: Lead4Pass 100-490 dumps page provides download free Demo for you to experience, you can also participate in the following online practice tests

Latest Cisco 100-490 dumps Exam Questions:

Question 1:

Which Xmodem option is used to enhance error checking of an image that is copied to flash memory?

A. -e

B. -r

C. -c

D. -x

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

What are the two purposes of a USB thumb drive? (Choose two.)

A. to save the system log

B. to copy configuration files to and from a PC

C. to save router hardware information

D. to copy IOS images to and from a PC

E. to increase system memory size

Correct Answer: BD

Question 3:

Which two commands identify the serial number of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

A. show run

B. show inventory

C. show environment

D. show version

E. show archive

Correct Answer: BD

Question 4:

Which bits represent the boot field in the configuration register value?

A. highest two bits

B. lowest two bits

C. highest four bits

D. lowest four bits

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Which type of memory stores the configuration of a router or switch by default?

A. RAM

B. ROM

C. NVRAM

D. flash

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.

C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.

D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 7:

Which command initiates the transfer of a Cisco IOS image over IP from ROMMON?

A. Xmodem

B. copy tftp: flash:

C. copy flash: tftp:

D. tftpdnld

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

Which type of transceiver module is used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet connectivity?

A. SFP+

B. GBIC

C. QSFP+

D. XFP

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/interfaces-modules/40-gigabit-modules/ index.html#:~:text=The%20Cisco%20QSFP%20BiDi%20transceiver,10%20Gigabit%20Ethernet%20fiber% 20infrastructure

Question 9:

Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?

A. physical

B. transport

C. network

D. MAC

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

Which two commands set the configuration register value? (Choose two.)

A. rommon>confreg 0x2102

B. router(config)#confreg 0x2102

C. rommon>config-register 0x2102

D. router(config)#configuration-register 0x2102

E. router(config)#config-register 0x2102

Correct Answer: AE

Question 11:

From the enable mode, which command loads the configuration during the password recovery process on a Cisco router?

A. load_helper

B. configure terminal

C. copy running-config startup-config

D. copy startup-config running-config

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Which device is a DTE device?

A. CSU/DSU

B. router

C. cable modem

D. DSL modem

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

What does Cisco use for Return Materials Authorization tracking of field-replaceable parts?

A. product number

B. serial number

C. RMA number

D. FRU number

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Which type of port is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?

A. rollover

B. fiber

C. straight-through

D. crossover

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

ESD is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials, caused by direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field. Which three tools are used to avoid ESD? (Choose three.)

A. negative static bag

B. antistatic mat

C. ESD wrist strap

D. negative static mat

E. antistatic bag

F. latex gloves

Correct Answer: BCE

…

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Lead4Pass 400-007 dumps | Practice the latest 400-007 exam questions

admin May 15, 2023 0 Comments

Lead4Pass updates Cisco 400-007 dumps throughout the year, and more importantly, shares a part of the exam questions and answers for free each time, providing candidates with online practice tests!
The May 400-007 dumps have been updated and verified as authentic and valid by the Cisco team! Now! Candidates can practice 400-007 test questions online!
Or use the Lead4Pass 400-007 dumps with PDF and VCE formats: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-007.html (contains 270 most recent exam questions and answers!).

Cisco 400-007 Exam Questions Online Practice Test:

QUESTION 1:

IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches.

Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes?

A. performance monitoring
B. security
C. observation of critical links
D. capacity planning

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

What are two common approaches to analyzing and designing networks? (Choose two.)

A. bottom-up approach
B. high-low security approach
C. top-down approach
D. left-right approach
E. three-tier approach

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3:

Company XYZ uses an office model where the employees can use any open desk and plug their laptops in. They want to authenticate the end users using their domain username and password before allowing them access to the network.

The design must also accommodate the ability to control traffic within the same group or subnet if a macro (or micro) segmentation-based model is adopted in the future.

Which protocol can be recommended for this design to authenticate end users?

A. LDAP
B. EAP
C. TACACS+
D. RADIUS

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: https://www.networkstraining.com/what-is-cisco-ise/

QUESTION 4:

The Company XYZ network is experiencing attacks against its router. Which type of Control Plane Protection must be used on the router to protect all control plane IP traffic that is destined directly for one of the router interfaces?

A. Control Plane Protection host subinterface
B. Control Plane Protection main interface
C. Control Plane Protection transit subinterface
D. Control Plane Protection CEF-exception subinterface

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

Which three components are part of the foundational information security principles of the CIA triad? (Choose three.)

A. cryptography
B. confidentiality
C. C. authorization
D. Identification
E. integrity
F. availability

Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 6:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7:

Which two mechanisms avoid suboptimal routing in a network with dynamic mutual redistribution between multiple OSPFv2 and EIGRP boundaries? (Choose two.)

A. AD manipulation
B. matching OSPF external routes
C. route tagging
D. route tagging
E. route filtering
F. matching EIGRP process ID

Correct Answer: DE

Explanation: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway- routing-protocol-eigrp/8606-redist.html

QUESTION 8:

A service provider recently migrated to an SD-WAN solution for delivering WAN connections to its customers. One of the main challenges with the SD-WAN deployment is that branch site volume increases every year, which causes management complexity.

Which action resolves the issue?

A. Implement a scalable network management system to manage all sites.
B. Adopt a well-structured SD-WAN service management lifecycle model
C. Build a service orchestration platform on top of the network controller
D. Set up a dedicated team to monitor and provision new customers

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

Which two aspects are considered when designing a dual hub dual DMVPN cloud topology? (Choose two )

A. will only work with single-tier headend architecture
B. hub sites must connect to both DMVPN clouds
C. recommended for high availability
D. spoke-to-spoke traffic will transit the hub unless spokes exchange dynamic routing directly
E. requires all sites to have dual Internet connections

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10:

A network architect in an enterprise is designing a network policy for certain database applications. The goal of the policy is to allow these applications to access the internet directly, whereas other user and network applications that communicate with systems or users outside their own network must be routed through the data center.

The focus is on achieving higher availability and a better user experience for the database applications, but switching between different network paths based on performance characteristics must be supported.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. MPLS L3VPN with QoS
B. Cloud onRamp for laaS

C. Cloud onRamp for SaaS
D. MPLS direct connect

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/sd- wan/nb-06-cloud-onramp-saas-faq-cte-en.html

QUESTION 11:

A healthcare provider discovers that the protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data.

Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue?

A. technical and physical access control
B. administrative security management processes
C. physical device and media control
D. technical integrity and transmission security

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Compliance/HIPAA/HIP_AppC.html #wp1085353

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

There are multiple trees in the Cisco FabricPath All switches in the Layer 2 fabric share the same view of each tree. Which two concepts describe how the multicast traffic is load-balanced across this topology? (Choose two )

A. A specific (S.G) traffic is not load-balanced

B. All trees are utilized at the same level of the traffic rate

C. Every leaf node assigns the specific (S.G) to the same tree.

D. A specific (S.G) multicast traffic is load-balanced across all trees due to better link utilization efficiency.

E. The multicast traffic is generally load-balanced across all trees

Correct Answer: BD

Question 13:

An IT service provider is upgrading network infrastructure to comply with PCI security standards. The network team finds that 802.1X and VPN authentication based on locally- significant certificates are not available on some legacy phones.

Which workaround solution meets the requirement?

A. Replace legacy phones with new phones because legacy phones will lose trust if the certificate is renewed.

B. Enable phone VPN authentication based on end-user username and password.

C. Temporarily allow fallback to TLS 1.0 when using certificates and then upgrade the software on legacy phones.

D. Use authentication-based clear text passwords with no EAP-MD5 on legacy phones.

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Which two characteristics are associated with 802 1s? (Choose two)

A. 802.1s supports up to 1024 instances of 802.1

B. 802.1 s is a Cisco enhancement to 802.1w.

C. 802.1s provides for faster convergence over 802 1D and PVST+.

D. CPU and memory requirements are the highest of all spanning-tree STP implementations.

E. 802.1s map multiple VLANs to the same spanning-tree instance

Correct Answer: CE

Question 15:

A healthcare provider discovers that the protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue?

A. technical and physical access control

B. administrative security management processes

C. physical device and media control

D. technical integrity and transmission security

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Compliance/HIPAA/HIP_AppC.html #wp1085353

Question 16:

Which actions are performed at the distribution layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose two)

A. Fast transport

B. Reliability

C. QoS classification and marking the boundary

D. Fault isolation

E. Redundancy and load balancing

Correct Answer: DE

Question 17:

Two routers R1 and R2 are directly connected through an Ethernet link. Both routers are running OSPF over the Ethernet link and OSPF has been registered with BFD. R1 has been set up to transmit BFD at a 50 ms interval, but R2 can receive only at a 100 ms rate due to platform limitations. What does this mean?

A. After the initial timer exchange. R2 sets its transmission rate to the R1 Desired Min TX interval

B. After the initial timer exchange. R1 sets its transmission rate to the R2 Required Min RX interval

C. Timers renegotiate indefinitely, so the timer exchange phase never converges

D. R2 sets the P-bit on all BFD control packets until R2 sends a packet with the F-bit set

Correct Answer: B

Question 18:

Which solution component helps to achieve comprehensive threat protection and compliance for migration to multi-cloud SDX architectures?

A. system-oriented architecture

B. OSASE architecture

C. platform-oriented architecture

D. SASE architecture

Correct Answer: D

…

PS. Download the latest Cisco 400-007 exam practice questions online: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1BJIhIbxqON2yT8hf4A9CmQH_hhKvCs55/

Every free sharing of Cisco 400-007 exam questions is the hard work of our Cisco team, and we hope to help you improve your strength!
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Latest Updated CCNP Data Center 300-610 Dumps Helps Candidates Pass 300-610 DCID Exam

admin September 9, 2022 0 Comments

The latest updated CCNP Data Center 300-610 dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine, containing 165 exam questions and answers, serve all 300-610 DCID exam candidates to help them successfully pass the exam.

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Download a free 2022 CCNP Data Center 300-610 dumps PDF online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1RrskatjaCW_IHpKfJXZCIv8nUZnxBlJ_/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LUhCOflXsh0nTs0e8tVuUSa9X2isiLGt/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1kCb6hGKEmygmRRyMQGAUNS9-tqfpFeYS/

Free sharing of 15 CCNP Data Center 300-610 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

A failure occurs on the network between two BFD and OSPF neighbors. Drag and drop the protocol actions from the left into the correct order on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/fs_bfd.html#wp1238898

New Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag the appropriate from the left onto the current UDLD modes of operation on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/10591-77.html

New Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the data center technologies from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all technologies are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch resources from the left onto the correct groups on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/virtual_device_context/configuration/guide/b-7k-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-Virtual-Device-Context-Configuration-Guide/creating-vdc.html

New Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the feature descriptions from the left onto the correct UCS Fabric Interconnect modes on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

New Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the configurations from the left onto the correct policies on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/configuring_network_related_policies.html#task_7F03A03C719A4A44B8ACFAD73AADC73C

New Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the components from the left onto the descriptions on the right that indicate what occurs to Fibre Channel fabric when that component fails.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 8:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the technologies from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 9:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the SAN components from the left onto the correct design considerations on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag the requirements from the left onto the correct policy types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 11:

What is the advantage of Cisco HyperFlex Edge as compared to Cisco HyperFlex Standard Clusters?

A. Cisco Intersight automatically creates an invisible cloud witness.

B. Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis provides SEEPROM connectivity to solve split-brain scenarios.

C. Cisco UCS Manager provides service profile portability across nodes.

D. Cisco HyperFlex Edge provides native container support through the KVM hypervisor.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/hyperconverged-infrastructure/hyperflex-hx-series/whitepaper-c11-741999.pdf

New Question 12:

A set of virtual machines must be live migrated from a data center to a disaster recovery site. The data center and disaster recovery sites are connected through an Inter-Pod Network topology. The gateway address of the virtual machine is the same across the data center and disaster recovery. Which Cisco Nexus feature supports this requirement?

A. VXLAN EVPN

B. FabricPath

C. FHRR

D. VPLS

Correct Answer: A

New Question 13:

Which two vSphere features must be included in the design of a Cisco HyperFlex systems stretched cluster? (Choose two.)

A. HA

B. VSS

C. FT

D. VDP

E. DRS

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/hyperconverged_systems/ HyperFlex_HX_DataPlatformSoftware/HyperFlex_Stretched_Cluster/3_5/ b_HyperFlex_Systems_Stretched_Cluster_Guide_3_5.pdf

New Question 14:

Which factor determines the choice of platform designing a Cisco HyperFlex infrastructure to support computer-aided design applications?

A. network speed

B. GPU support

C. storage capacity

D. processor count

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/hyperconverged-infrastructure/hyperflex-hx-series/whitepaper-c11-740243.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/hyperconverged-infrastructure/hyperflex-hx-series/ hx-220c-m5-specsheet.pdf

New Question 15:

An engineer must deploy a Cisco HyperFlex system at two data centers. For redundancy reasons, the setup must achieve data protection in case of an entire site failure. The data must be available on both sites at all times to keep the

recovery time objective to a minimum.

Which Cisco HyperFlex deployment model meets these requirements?

A. ROBO cluster

B. stretched cluster

C. edge with four nodes or more

D. standard with eight nodes

Correct Answer: B

Download a free 2022 CCNP Data Center 300-610 dumps PDF online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1RrskatjaCW_IHpKfJXZCIv8nUZnxBlJ_/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LUhCOflXsh0nTs0e8tVuUSa9X2isiLGt/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1kCb6hGKEmygmRRyMQGAUNS9-tqfpFeYS/

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The latest updated Cisco 300-415 exam questions are shared online

admin August 26, 2022 0 Comments

Cisco 300-415 exam questions and answers have been updated to share online first, you can download Cisco 300-415 dumps with PDF and VCE exam engine https://www.lead4pass.com/300-415.html, practice 227 latest Cisco 300-415 exam questions.

Lead4Pass 300-415 Dumps has a 99.5% exam pass rate, and 365-day free updates, and is suitable for beginners and IT professionals alike.

Download the Cisco 300-415 PDF for free sharing online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/144s38ptNe4IxoJk4wQsxqHkSvqqO1PCi/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1wZrSbaRDp_ur02C4lcVHNNU_AA7bv9-B/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1OR7ozeji-pv2W82FDM4H3PEzx28ZrrA6/

Online practice for some of the latest Cisco 300-415 exam questions available online:

New Question 1:

Which two hardware platforms support Cisco IOS XE SD-WAN images? (Choose two.)

A. ISR4000 series

B. ISR9300 series

C. vEdge-1000 series

D. ASR9000 series

E. ASR1000 series

Check answer ⇩

New Question 2:

What is a default protocol for control plane connection?

A. HTTPS

B. TLS

C. IPsec

D. DTLS

Check answer ⇩

New Question 3:

Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN control plane architecture should be located in a public Internet address space and facilitates NAT traversal?

A. WAN Edge

B. vSmart

C. vBond

D. vManage

Check answer ⇩

New Question 4:

Which Cisco SD-WAN WAN Edge platform supports LTE and Wi-Fi?

A. ISR 1101

B. ASR 1001

C. CSR 1000v

D. vEdge 2000

Check answer ⇩

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. What does the BFD value of 8 represent?

A. dead timer of BFD session

B. poll-interval of BFD session

C. hello timer of BFD session

D. number of BFD sessions

Check answer ⇩

New Question 6:

What are the two advantages of deploying cloud-based Cisco SD-WAN controllers? (Choose two.)

A. centralized control and data plane

B. infrastructure as a service

C. management of SLA

D. centralized raid storage of data

E. distributed authentication policies

Check answer ⇩

New Question 7:

Which two image formats are supported for controller codes? (Choose two.)

A. .nxos

B. .qcow2

C. .iso

D. .ova

E. .tgz

Check answer ⇩

New Question 8:

Which two platforms for the Cisco SD-WAN architecture are deployable in a hypervisor on-premises or in IAAS Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. CSR 1000v

B. ISR 4431

C. vEdge 100c

D. vEdge 2000

E. vEdge Cloud

Check answer ⇩

New Question 9:

How is the scalability of the Manage increased in Cisco SD-WAN Fabric?

A. Increase the bandwidth of the WAN link connected to the vManage

B. Increase licensing on the vManage

C. Deploy more than one vManage controllers on different physical server

D. Deploy multiple vManage controllers in a cluster

Check answer ⇩

New Question 10:

Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN control plane does architecture facilitate the storage of certificates and configurations for network components?

A. vSmart

B. WAN Edge

C. vManage

D. vBond

Check answer ⇩

New Question 11:

An engineer is troubleshooting a vEdge router and identifies a “DCONFAIL ? DTLS connection failure” message. What is the problem?

A. memory issue

B. certificate mismatch

C. organization mismatch

D. connectivity issue

Check answer ⇩

New Question 12:

An engineer is troubleshooting a certificate issue on vEdge. Which command is used to verify the validity of the certificates?

A. show control of local-properties

B. show control summary

C. show certificate installed

D. show certificate status

Check answer ⇩

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting a control connection issue. What does “connect” mean in this show control connections output?

A. Control connection is down

B. Control connection is up

C. Control connection attempt is in progress

D. Control connection is connected

Check answer ⇩

New Question 14:

A vEdge platform is sending VRRP advertisement messages every 10 seconds. Which value configures the router back to the default timer?

A. 2 seconds

B. 5 seconds

C. 1 second

D. 3 seconds

Check answer ⇩

New Question 15:

Which OSPF command makes the WAN Edge router a less preferred exit from a site with a dual WAN Edge design?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Check answer ⇩

…

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admin July 16, 2022 0 Comments

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Exam Code: 350-801
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)
Certification: CCNP Collaboration
Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $400 USD
Number of Questions: 90-110
350-801 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-801.html (Total Questions: 347 Q&A)

Cisco 350-801 exam questions online practice test:

Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?

A. Cisco IM and Presence node

B. Cisco Unified Border Element

C. Cisco Expressway

D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server

Question 2:

A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?

A. Attempt Forward routing rule

B. Alternate Extensions

C. Alternate Names

D. Mobile User

Question 3:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?

A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.

B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.

Question 4:

An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)

A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.

B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.

C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.

D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.

E. Voice packets are classified and marked.

Question 5:

A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end user

C. Active Directory

D. Cisco IM and Presence

Question 6:

What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?

A. Video is typically a variable bit rate.

B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements.

C. Video is typically a constant bit rate.

D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.

Question 7:

An engineer encounters third-party devices that do not support Cisco Discovery Protocol. What must be configured on the network to allow device discovery?

A. LACP

B. TFTP

C. LLDP

D. SNMP

Question 8:

An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with their own devices. One requirement is to keep that as simple as possible for end users. Which infrastructure element achieves these goals?

A. Cisco Express Mobility

B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E

C. Cisco Unified Border Element

D. Cisco Unified Instant Messaging and Presence

Question 9:

On which Cisco Unified Communications Manager nodes can the TFTP service be enabled?

A. any node

B. any two nodes

C. only nodes that have Cisco Unified CM service enabled

D. any subscriber nodes

You can configure the TFTP service on the first node or a subsequent node, but usually, you should configure it on the first node. For small systems, the TFTP server can coexist with a Cisco Unified Communications Manager on the same server.

Question 10:

Which issue causes slips on a PRI?

A. incorrect clock source

B. incorrect encapsulation

C. incorrectly configured time zone

D. change in the line code

Question 11:

Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?

A. clock source line

B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.

C. clocking source internal

D. clocking source network

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. This INVITE is sent to an endpoint that only supports G729. What must be done for this call to succeed?

A. Nothing: both sides support G.729.

B. Add a transcoder that supports G711ulaw and G.729.

C. Add a media termination point that supports G.711ulaw and G.729.

D. Nothing: both sides support payload type 101.

Question 13:

Which action prevents toll fraud in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Implement toll fraud restriction in the Cisco IOS router.

B. Implement route patterns in Cisco Unified CM.

C. Allow off-net to off-net transfers.

D. Configure ad hoc conference restriction.

Question 14:

A user forwards a corporate number to an international number. What are two methods to prevent this forwarded call? (Choose two.)

A. Set the Call Classification to OnNet for the international route pattern.

B. Block international dial patterns in the SIP trunk CSS.

C. Configure a Forced Authorization Code on the international route pattern.

D. Set Call Forward All CSS to restrict international dial patterns.

E. Check Route Next Hop By Calling Party Number on the international route pattern.

Question 15:

Calls are being delivered to the end user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?

A. route pattern

B. service parameters

C. IP phone

D. gateway

……

Verify answer:

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admin February 5, 2021 0 Comments

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QUESTION 1
Which two elements does Tetration provide for security posture and traffic analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Device updates
B. App process information
C. App access control
D. App dependency map
E. Hardware packages
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
For what does ACI provide a single point of support?
A. automation
B. management
C. orchestration
D. visibility
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What are three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose three.)
A. Firewalls
B. Advanced Threat
C. Cloud Security
D. Roaming Security
E. loT Security
F. Voice and Collaboration
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4
Where do you start to achieve true network visibility?
A. Branches
B. Fabric Level
C. OT
D. IT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)
A. Duo
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Stealthwatch
D. Cisco Security Connector
E. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: BC
https://www.cisco.com/c/en_ae/products/security/portfolio.html#~stickynav=2

QUESTION 6
Which two benefits of flexible purchasing does Cisco provide? (Choose two.)
A. Simplify the datacenter
B. Meet immediate needs
C. Roll out more solutions
D. Plan for the future
E. Reduce training needs
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
What are two common seller obstacles? (Choose two.)
A. Unresponsive potential customers
B. Overcrowded portfolios
C. Complexity of solution components
D. Fragmented solutions
E. Seller competition
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which two areas require secure access? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow
B. Workspace
C. Workforce
D. Worktable
E. Workloads
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which three products are in Cisco\\’s Web and Email Security portfolio? (Choose three.)
A. Meraki
B. ESA
C. Investigate
D. WSA
E. Umbrella
F. CES
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 10
What are two factors that influence customer loT conversations\\’? (Choose two)
A. Maturity
B. Detection
C. Motivation
D. Protection
E. Prevention
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
What are two ways Cisco addresses customers\\’ growing business needs? (Choose two.)
A. multi/hybrid cloud platforms
B. Highly-scalable DC platforms
C. Bulletproof NGFW appliances
D. Consolidated tracking and reporting
E. Multiple solution deployment choices
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
What are two ways Cisco helps customers navigate compliance issues? (Choose two.)
A. Providing identity verification
B. Securing email communications
C. Ensuring all employees have access to all files
D. Removing reporting requirements
E. Removing bureaucratic security tags
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two security areas are provided by Cisco\\’s email solutions? (Choose two.)
A. DNS-Layer Security
B. CTD and Network Analytics
C. Malware Protection
D. Identity Services
E. Cloud App Security
Correct Answer: CD

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Best way to pass the Cisco 300-175 exam – 100% free

admin February 29, 2020 0 Comments

What is the best way to pass the Cisco 300-175 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Cisco expert.) You can get free Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/300-175.html (416 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

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300-175 DCUCI – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcuci.html

This tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing data center technologies including:

• Unified computing
• Unified computing maintenance and operations
• Automation
• Unified computing security
• Unified computing storage

Latest updates Cisco 300-175 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which three AAA protocols are supported for communication with external AAA providers? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. AD
D. LDAP
E. ACS
F. 802.1X
Correct Answer: ABD
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/
UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_95086D8A9B594FD29A3BD8AF5D2DA1
FC Cisco UCS supports two methods to authenticate user logins:
Through user accounts local to Cisco UCS Manager
Remotely through one of the following protocols:
LDAP
RADIUS
TACACS+

QUESTION 2
This question concerns provisioning a workload on a Cisco UCS System. Drag the options on the left to the right side in
the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the ESXi installation on a Cisco UCS C-Series server is true?

A. The ESXi is installed on a local drive and the SATA drive is selected as the first boot option.
B. The ESXi is installed on a local RAID array and the local RAID group is selected as the first boot option.
C. During the ESXi installation process, on a local RAID you must select the local RAID group
D. During the ESXi installation process, you must select the location of the ESXi image file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Drag Drop
The Cisco Integrated Management Controller on a Cisco Unified Computing B-Series server provides a number of
features. Drag the functionality on the left to the appropriate feature on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5
Which item represents a secure method of transmitting fault data with Cisco Call Home?
A. IPsec
B. SSL email
C. secure XML
D. Cisco Transport Gateway
E. RSA Digital Certificate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Drag Drop
This questions concern the replacement of copper twinax SFP+transceiver with an optical SFP+transceiver on a Cisco
Unified Computing System blade server.
Drag the options on the left to the right side in the correct order when performing the replacement. Note: Not all of the
options on the left will be used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
You have a Cisco UCS C-Series Server. What can you use to log the blade server statistics?
A. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller log
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. the XML API
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-c-series-rack-servers/datasheet-c78-733571.html

QUESTION 8
You need to enable Cisco UCS Manager to support out-of-band IPv4 address access to the Cisco UCS KVM Direct
launch page from a web browser. What should you enable?
A. SMASH CLP
B. CIM XML
C. SNMP
D. CIMC Web Service
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/Admin-Management/3-1/b
_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1_chapter_0110.html -Cisco UCS
Manager supports out-of-band IPv4 address access to the Cisco UCS KVM Direct launch page from a web browser. To
provide this access, you must enable the following service: CIMC Web Service https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/3-0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0_chapte
r_0100111.pdf

QUESTION 9
You need to implement a Cisco UCS system at a customer site.
Which adapters and operating systems have preprovisioned adapter policies?
A. Ethernet vNICs and Windows. OS X Server, and Oracle Solaris operating systems
B. Fibre Channel vNICs and Windows, FreeBSD, and Linux operating systems
C. Ethernet vNICs and Windows, VMware, and Linux operating systems
D. Fibre Channel vNICs and Windows, Oracle Solaris, and Linux operating systems
Correct Answer: A
http://www.educationalcentre.co.uk/deploy-a-cisco-ucs-system-part-2-from-scratch-for-vmware-esxi/ https://www.cisco.c
om/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_
GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapter_010101.html#d71329e928a1635

Fibre Channel are not vNICs. They are vHBAs.
Ethernet are vNICs.
OSX Server is not a predefined policy.

QUESTION 10
The Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects offer a new feature that allows dynamic port allocation for all of the 10
Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. What are these ports called?
A. universal ports
B. flex ports
C. unified ports
D. converged ports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Drag Drop
Drag the characteristic on the left to the most appropriate Cisco unified Computing System 62XX Fibre Channel
switching mode on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
Before upgrading a Cisco UCS cluster, you need to verify the high-availability status and roles of the cluster. In which
scenario can you successfully perform the upgrade?
A. When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, the Ready field value is Ready and the State field value is On When
you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLl, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both ON and the cluster
state is HA WAITING.
B. When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, the Ready field value is Yes and the State field value is Up. When
you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLl, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both UP and the cluster state
is HA READY.
C. When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, the Ready field value is Ready and the State field value is Active.
When you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLI, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both READY and the
cluster stale is HA WAITING.
D. When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI. the Ready field value is Ready and the State field value is Up. When
you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLI, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both UP and the cluster stale
is HA UP.
Correct Answer: B
When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, the Ready field value is Yes and the State field value is Up.
When you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLl, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both UP and the
cluster state is HA READY. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware-mgmt/gui/2-2/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22_chapter_011.pdf

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/CLI-User-Guides/Firmware-Mgmt/3-1/b_UCSM_CLI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1/b_UCSM_GUI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1_chapter_010.html#task_F5AC1A117B4F499D9DCFC221E2BC20AB

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect. You associate a blade server to a service
profile that has the Testing boot policy. Which statement describes the result of the configuration?

A. The iSCSI boot was created for the LAN boot policy.
B. The blade server fails to boot due to a missing configuration line of set order 0.
C. The blade server first tries to boot by using vHBA3 across the SAN network.
D. The blade server first tries to boot from the local storage, and if this fails, it boots from vHBA3.
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/configuring_server_boot.pdf

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Cisco CCDP 300-320 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which two characteristics of MSDP when designing an interdomain multicast network are true? (Choose two.)
A. MSDP is a mechanism that allows RPs to share information about active sources.
B. Any network utilizing iBGP or eBGP can use MSDP.
C. In the PIM-SM model, multicast sources and receivers must register with their local RP.
D. RPs in other domains have full knowledge of sources located in other domains.
E. The MSDP speaker periodically sends SAs that include all sources in all discovered domains.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/Phase_1/mcstmsdp/mcst_p1.html

QUESTION 2
What is advantage of using the vPC feature in Data Centre environment?
A. Two switches form a single control plane
B. Utilizes all available uplinks bandwidth
C. FHRP is not required
D. A single IP is used for management for both devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Port Security supports which type of port?
A. IEEE 802.1Q tunnel port
B. Dynamic trunk
C. Port-channel
D. Routed port
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A Consultant has been tasked with QoS design. The customer has specified that for the application end-to-end
bandwidth has to be specified. With what can you accomplish this?
A. IntServ with RSVP
B. DiffServ
C. CoS markings
D. DSCP markings
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A company have single ASA hardware box and they need to separate company departments in way that they can apply
different rules on them, ACL, NAT, and so on… Which mode is needed?
A. routed mode
B. transparent mode
C. multiple context mode
D. active failover mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Uplink floating state ( up and down ) .what you can do to solve this problem ?
A. route summary
B. Cisco Express Forwarding
C. BFD
D. UDLD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
There\\’s a requirement to separate networks within an organization. What technology can be used while preserving
hardware?
A. Virtual Context B. VRF
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which two options regarding the Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tag are true? (Choose two)
A. It is assigned by the Cisco ISE to the user or endpoint session upon login
B. Best practice dictates it should be statically created on the switch
C. It is removed by the Cisco ISE before reaching the endpoint.
D. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a guest group allowing access to minimal services
E. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a security group for common services such as DNS and
DHCP
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which one is IETF standared
A. Cisco Fabric Path
B. Data Center Bridging
C. CUS
D. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
Correct Answer: D
The Data Center Bridging (DCB) architecture is based on a collection of open standards Ethernet extensions developed
through the IEEE 802.1 working group to improve and expand Ethernet networking and management capabilities in the
data center.
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/ieee-802-1-data-centerbridging/at_a_glance_c45-460907.pdf TRILL
(“Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links”) is an IETF Standard[1] implemented by devicescalled RBridges (routing
bridges) or TRILL Switches.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TRILL_(computing)

QUESTION 10
Given the addresses 10.10.16.0/24 and 10.10.23.0/24, which option is the best summary?
A. 10.10.0.0/16
B. 10.10.8.0/23
C. 10.10.16.0/23
D. 10.10.16.0/21
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
In which multicast configuration is MSDP most useful?
A. Interdomain IPv4 PIM sparse-Mode
B. Interdomain IPv4 PIM dense-Mode
C. Intra-domain IPv4 PIM dense-Mode
D. Intra-domain IPv4 PIM sparse-Mode
Correct Answer: A
“Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) is a Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) family multicast routing protocol
defined by Experimental RFC 3618.
MSDP interconnects multiple IPv4 PIM Sparse-Mode
(PIM-SM) domains which enables PIM-SM to have Rendezvous Point (RP) redundancy and inter-domain multicasting
RFC 4611″

QUESTION 12
When 2 distribution switches are configured for VSS, what needs to be done to extend back plane connectivity? (E)
A. ISL
B. VSL
C. VSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about 802.1X are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can allow and deny port access based on device identity.
B. It is a Cisco proprietary standard.
C. It works only with wired devices.
D. By default, it allows devices that lack 802.1 support.
E. It can allow and deny port access based on user identity.
Correct Answer: AE

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Pass the Cisco CCDP 300-101 exam. “Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE)”: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-101.html (Total Questions: 870 Q&As). I know you most want to get here for free 300-101 dumps. The latest free 300-101 exam practice questions and 300-101 pdf help you improve your skills and exam experience!

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• Latest Cisco CCDP 300-101 pdf
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Latest Cisco CCDP 300-101 pdf

[PDF] Free Cisco CCDP 300-101 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1j9mCWwgGmLhAFwPtVdoDN6mcdrk3CSAk

300-101 ROUTE – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/route2.html

Test your Cisco CCDP 300-101 exam level

QUESTION 1

Which two commands must you configure in the calling router to support the PPPoE client? (Choose Two) 

A. peer default ipaddress pool 

B. mtu 

C. bba-group pppoe 

D. pppoe enable group 

E. pppoe-clientdialer-pool-number 

Correct Answer: BE 

QUESTION 2

WHich DHCP option provides a TFTP server that Cisco phones can use to download a configuration? 

A. DHCP Option 66 

B. DHCP Option 68 

C. DHCP Option 82 

D. DHCP Option 57 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

Which condition must be met before two EVN devices can connect ? 

A. One VLAN interface must be configured between devices 

B. An EtherChannel configured with at least two interfaces connected between the devices. 

C. A trunk interface must be configured between devices 

D. A fiber connection must be established betwwrn the devices. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP?
A. E1 and E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF
B. E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix list TO-OSPF
C. only E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF
D. only E1 subnets matching prefix listTO-OS1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the
16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address.Based on this information, what do you conclude about
these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Correct Answer: A
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface
identify them EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP
as
in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48- bit MAC address. The Mac address is
first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific.
The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as
a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address.
Here is an example showing how the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.
Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit identifies whether this
interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is locally administered and if 1, the address is
globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE have
always been set to 0 whereas the locally created addresses have 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it
maintains its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for inverting can be
found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
Once the above is done, we have a fully functional EUI-64 format address. Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/100566/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bit-address

QUESTION 6
if you configure one router in you network with auto-cost reference bandwidth 100 command, which effect on the data
path is true?
A. the data path remains the same for all links
B. the data path changes for 10Mbps links only
C. the data path changes for all links
D. the data path changes for 10GBPS links only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which type of address does OSPFv3 use to form neighbor adjacencies and to send LSAs?
A. unicast IPv6 addresses
B. link-local addresses
C. multicast address FF02::5
D. unicast IPv4 addresses
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which type of information is displayed when a network engineer executes the show track 1 command on the router?
A. information about tracking list 1
B. information about the IP route track table.
C. time to next poll for track object 1
D. tracking information statistics.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connection to various remote sites, but no OSPF
adjacencies come up. Which two actions are solutions for this issue? (Choose two)
A. router#show memory allocating-process table
B. router#show memory dead
C. router#show memory processor statistics
D. router#show memory summary
E. router#show memory events
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
A diagram with 3 routers:
+
H1 (with IPv6 IP and Loopback 1.1.1.1)
+
R1 (with IP IPv6 and Loopback 2.2.2.2)
+
R2 (with IP IPv6 and Loopback 3.3.3.3)
Running with EIGRP 100 on both routers and what command you will implement so that you will see the loopback IP of
R2 to be advertised at H1
A.
H1(config t)#router eigrp 100 H1(config t)#no stub only
B.
H1(config t) router eigrp 100 H1(config t)#no stub only
C.
R2(config t)#router eigrp 100 R2(config t)#no stub receive only
D.
R2# router eigrp 100 R2(config t)#no stub only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
How can you mitigate fragmentation issues between endpoints separated by a GRE tunnel?
A. PMTU (without “D”)
B. TCP MSS
C. windowing D. ICMP DF bit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What are three reasons to control routing updates via route filtering? (Choose three).
A. to hide certain networks from the rest of the organization
B. for easier implementation
C. to control network overhead on the wire
D. for simple security
E. to prevent adjacencies from forming
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
Users were moved from the local DHCP server to the remote corporate DHCP server. After the move, none of the users
were able to use the network. Which two issues will prevent this setup from working properly? (Choose two)
A. Auto-QoS is blocking DHCP traffic.
B. The DHCP server IP address configuration is missing locally
C. 802.1X is blocking DHCP traffic
D. The broadcast domain is too large for proper DHCP propagation
E. The route to the new DHCP server is missing
Correct Answer: BE

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