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QUESTION 1
If balancing policies on a Huawei OceanStor 9000 are disabled, balancing tasks are not generated in such scenarios as adding, deleting, and disabling nodes, adding disks, disk pre-failure, and slow disks. If balancing policies are enabled after node deletion, however, data balancing is automatically implemented.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Huawei hyper-converged storage supports parallel and fast data reconstruction. Data is fragmented in the resource pool. A disk failure triggers automatic and parallel reconstruction of the actual data by the entire resource pool without requiring hot spare disks.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following sequences is correct about the small I/O to write cache scenario of the multi-level cache technology of Huawei distributed storage?
(1) Data is written to write-ahead logging (WAL) based on the SSD cache and a write completion message is returned to the host.
(2) When the memory write cache reaches a certain watermark, data starts to be flushed disks.
(3) Data is written to the write cache based on random access memory (RAM).
(4) Small I/Os are written to the SSD cache of the local node first. After small I/Os are aggregated into a large I/O, the large I/O is written to an HDD.
A. (3) (1) (2) (4) B. (3) (2) (1) (4) C. (1) (2) (3) (4) D. (3) (4) (1) (2)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about Huawei OceanStor 1880 V5 Kunpeng is correct?
A. Supports front-end and back-end interconnect I/O modules and uses a fully interconnected hardware architecture.
B. Supports SmartMatrix 3.0 to balance cache mirroring and service load.
C. Supports upgrade with a single FC link without being perceived by host multipathing.
D. Tolerates failure of three out of four controllers.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
At the time of creation, a SmartThin LUN does not occupy storage space.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
A live gaming platform uses the FlashLink multi-core technology of Huawei OceanStor all-flash storage for its services. Which of the following describes core grouping in CPUs?
A. A request is processed by one core until its completion. Cores are lock-free to avoid frequent switchovers among the cores.
B. Read/write I/Os are deployed in different core groups from other types of I/Os to avoid mutual interference.
C. The controller works with SSDs to identify hot and cold data in the system, improve garbage collection efficiency, and prolong the service life of SSDs.
D. vNodes are bound to CPUs to reduce the overheads for scheduling and transmission across CPUs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A company deploys a Huawei distributed storage system to build a new online transaction system. The company deploys database application software of the transaction system on virtual machines (VMs). Multiple data volumes are mounted to VM. What are the best methods to ensure data restoration reliability?
A. All volume snapshots must be created at the same time. B. A snapshot and a consistency snapshot comply with the dependency consistency principle. C. Multiple data volumes used by the database do not have to use the consistency snapshot. D. Different data volumes need to be restored in sequence.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Assuming a setup with 1 host (A), 1 controller (B), 1 switch (C), and 1 disk enclosure (D). The correct order of powering on in a new installation is:
A. A-B-C-D B. D-C-B-A C. A-C-B-D D. D-B-C-A
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
In storage planning and design, which of the following is NOT involved in service planning?
A. Basic service B. Capacity planning C. Value-added function D. Network planning
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements about the bucket is incorrect?
A. A bucket is a container for storing objects. It can be considered as a directory that can be accessed through the network.
B. Buckets can be nested, thereby avoiding complicated container structure.
C. The function of a bucket is similar to that of a container. Both of them can be accessed through the network.
D. Lifecycle management of a bucket means automatically deleting objects from buckets after a certain period of time-based on configuration rules without client intervention.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A colleague suggests using SmartMigration to improve write performance on certain LUNs. This is:
A. Not possible in any situation. B. Possible in all situations. C. Possible in some situations. D. Only a temporary solution.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Huawei OceanStor Distributed Storage must be equipped with a minimum of three nodes that can vary in type.
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QUESTION 1
In the case of the OptiX OSN equipment, when the standby board is normal, which of the following operations does not cause the active/standby switching of the cross-connect board or clock board?
A. Delete the active cross-connect board or clock board logically. B. Open the upper and lower ejector levers of the active board at the same time. C. Deliver the active/standby switchover command. D. Perform a cold reset on the cross-connect or clock board.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which of the following protection schemes require the APS protocol?
A. ODUk SPRing protection B. ODUk SNCP C. SW SNCP D. 1:1 optical line protection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements about MPLS is wrong?
A. MPLS has two planes: the control plane and the forwarding plane. The control plane is connection-oriented, the forwarding plane is connectionless.
B. MPLS is not a service or application. It is a standard routine and switching platform that supports various upper-layer protocols and services.
C. In the packet transport field, the MPLS technology is mainly used to construct tunnels to carry various types of services (for example, TDM, ATM, and Ethernet) transmitted by PWE3 to implement end-toend transmission of services on packet networks.
D. MPLS packet forwarding is based on labels.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is not included in an ASON network?
A. ASON Domain B. ASON NE C. SC D. TE Link
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not a PW APS switching condition?
A. A warm reset is performed on the board. B. The board software is faulty. C. MPLS_PW_SF D. A cold reset is performed on the board.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
What are the wavelengths of the OSC channel used by the ST2 board?
A. 1510nm B. 1491nm C. 1511nm D. 1471 nm
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
When the grooming service level of the line board is ODUflex, which of the following protection schemes can be supported?
A. ODUk SPRing protection B. Tributary SNCP C. SW SNCP D. ODUk SNCP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is not a precaution after board replacement?
A. Record the settings of jumpers and DIP switches on the board. B. For functional units that have backups, check whether the switchover is normal. C. Check the indicator blinking status of the board and ensure that the board works properly. D. Ensure that no abnormal alarm.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
The LOA board can implement the L2 scheduling function of the Ethernet in OSN 1800.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following trails can be configured on the NMS?
A. OTS B. ODUk C. client D. OCh
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Loopback is a common operation for routine maintenance and troubleshooting. Which of the following statements about loopback operations are incorrect?
A. The hardware loopback is performed by using the fiber jumper or self-loop cable to perform the loopback on the optical port or electrical port.
B. When performing a hardware loopback on an optical port, you need to add an optical attenuator.
C. After the out loop is performed, the signals are transmitted to the internal.
D. After the loop is performed, the signals are transmitted to the external.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements about the electrical-layer overhead processing source function are correct?
A. The OPUk performs client signal mapping, frequency adjustment, and rate adaptation in the transmit direction.
B. The ODUkT calculates the BIP-8 and writes it into the TCMi.
C. The OTUk calculates BIP-8 and writes it into SM, GCC0, FAS, and MAFS.
D. the ODUkP calculates overheads such as BIP-8, PM, and GCC1/2.
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Huawei H13-321 Exam Questions Online Exam Practice Test
The answer is announced at the end of the article
QUESTION 1
The histogram operation of the image is to count the distribution frequency of the gray value of the whole image. When the illumination of the image is uneven, the operation effect of the histogram will be affected, and it is necessary to use an improved algorithm for image processing.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is not a common method of text vectorization?
A. EM B. CBOW C. BDOW D. DM
QUESTION 3
What are the difficulties of named entity recognition?
A. The length is uncertain B. The composition of named entities is complex C. Numerous types of named entities D. Complex nesting situation
QUESTION 4
Which of the following steps in the MFC extraction process?
A. Add window B. Framing C. Fourier transform D. Cepstrum analysis
QUESTION 5
The Gaussian filter of the same size has better denoising effect than the mean filter.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION 6
Named entity recognition refers to recognizing entities with specific meaning in text.
A. Name B. Place name C. Organization name D. Time E. Date
QUESTION 7
The 19 in VGG19 represents the subordinate sum of the number of layers in the network?
A. Pooling layer B. Convolutional layer C. Input layer D. Fully connected layer
QUESTION 8
NNLM In the model, what is the activation function used by the network output layer?
A. Sigmoid B. ReLU C. Softmax D. Tanh
QUESTION 9
What is the main task of syntactic analysis?
A. Participle B. Syntactic structure analysis C. Semantic analysis D. Dependency analysis
QUESTION 10
What algorithm engines are supported by ModelArts training assignments? (Multiple Choice)
A. PyTorch B. MXNet C. Spark MLlib D. TensorFlow
QUESTION 11
What is the use process of ModelArts automatic learning? (Single choice)
A. Deploy online -> Model training -> Data annotation B. Model training -> data annotation -> deployment online C. Data annotation -> model training -> deployment online D. Data annotation -> deployment online -> model training
QUESTION 12
In order to make the feature map consistent with the input image, you can use the filling method to add an all 0 and a frame to the input image and then calculate.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION 13
When applying image processing technology, it is necessary to locate the task of image classification, target detection, image segmentation and target tracking, which cannot be mixed with algorithms.
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Candidates for this exam should have subject matter expertise implementing, managing, and monitoring an organization’s Microsoft Azure environment.
Responsibilities for an Azure Administrator include implementing, managing, and monitoring identity, governance, storage, compute, and virtual networks in a cloud environment, plus provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources, when needed.
An Azure Administrator often serves as part of a larger team dedicated to implementing your organization’s cloud infrastructure.
A candidate for this exam should have at least six months of hands-on experience administering Azure, along with a strong understanding of core Azure services, Azure workloads, security, and governance. In addition, this role should have experience using PowerShell, Azure CLI, Azure portal, and Azure Resource Manager templates.
Skills measured
Manage Azure identities and governance (15-20%)
Implement and manage storage (10-15%)
Deploy and manage Azure compute resources (25-30%)
Configure and manage virtual networking (30-35%)
Monitor and back up Azure resources (10-15%)
Latest Updates Microsoft az-104 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription that contains the following resources: * A virtual network that has a subnet named Subnet1 * Two network security groups (NSGs) named NSG-VM1 and NSG-Subnet1 * A virtual machine named VM1 that has the required Windows Server configurations to allow Remote Desktop connections NSG-Subnet1 has the default inbound security rules only. NSG-VM1 has the default inbound security rules and the following custom inbound security rule: * Priority: 100 * Source: Any
Source port range: * * Destination: * * Destination port range: 3389 * Protocol: UDP * Action: Allow VM1 connects to Subnet1. NSG1-VM1 is associated with the network interface of VM1. NSG-Subnet1 is associated with Subnet1. You need to be able to establish Remote Desktop connections from the internet to VM1. Solution: You add an inbound security rule to NSG-Subnet1 that allows connections from the Any source to the VirtualNetwork destination for port range 3389 and uses the TCP protocol. You remove NSG-VM1 from the network interface of VM1. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.com. Adatum.com contains the groups in the following table.
You create two user accounts that are configured as shown in the following table.
To which groups do User1 and User2 belong? To answer. select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
You need to the appropriate sizes for the Azure virtual for Server2. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Create a Recovery Services vault Create a Recovery Services vault on the Azure Portal. Box 2: Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider Azure Site Recovery can be used to manage the migration of on-premises machines to Azure. Scenario: Migrate the virtual machines hosted on Server1 and Server2 to Azure. Server2 has the Hyper-V host role. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-on-premises-azure
QUESTION 4
You are evaluating the name resolution for the virtual machines after the planned implementation of the Azure networking infrastructure. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5
You have an Azure subscription that contains a user account named User1. You need to ensure that User1 can assign a policy to the tenant root management group. What should you do? A. Assign the Owner role to User1, and then instruct User1 to configure access management for Azure resources. B. Assign the Global administrator role to User1, and then instruct User1 to configure access management for Azure resources. C. Assign the Global administrator role to User1, and then modify the default conditional access policies. D. Assign the Owner role to User1, and then modify the default conditional access policies.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You have an Azure subscription that contains the following users in an Azure Active Directory tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com:
User1 creates a new Azure Active Directory tenant named external.contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You need to create new user accounts on external.contoso.com.onmicrosoft.com. Solution: You instruct User1 to create user accounts. A. Yes B. No
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure file share. You have an on-premises server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You plan to set up Azure File Sync between Server1 and the Azure file share. You need to prepare the subscription for the planned Azure File Sync. Which two actions should you perform in the Azure subscription? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct targets. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
First action: Create a Storage Sync Service The deployment of Azure File Sync starts with placing a Storage Sync Service resource into a resource group of your selected subscription. Second action: Run Server Registration Registering your Windows Server with a Storage Sync Service establishes a trust relationship between your server (or cluster) and the Storage Sync Service. A server can only be registered to one Storage Sync Service and can sync with other servers and Azure file shares associated with the same Storage Sync Service. The Server Registration UI should open automatically after installation of the Azure File Sync agent.
Incorrect Answers: Not Install the Azure File Sync agent: The Azure File Sync agent is a downloadable package that enables Windows Server to be synced with an Azure file share.
QUESTION 8
You have an Azure subscription that contains the following users in an Azure Active Directory tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com:
User1 creates a new Azure Active Directory tenant named external.contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You need to create new user accounts on external.contoso.com.onmicrosoft.com. Solution: You instruct User3 to create user accounts. A. Yes B. No
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Availability Set named WEBPROD-AS- USE2 as shown in the following exhibit.
You add 14 virtual machines to WEBPROD-AS-USE2. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
You need to prepare the environment to ensure that the web administrators can deploy the web apps as quickly as possible. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
You have several Azure virtual machines on a virtual network named VNet1. You configure an Azure Storage account as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: always Endpoint status is enabled. Box 2: Never After you configure firewall and virtual network settings for your storage account, select Allow trusted Microsoft services to access this storage account as an exception to enable Azure Backup service to access the network restricted storage account.
You are evaluating the connectivity between the virtual machines after the planned implementation of the Azure networking infrastructure. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13
You plan to create an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that will be configured as shown in the following exhibit. The planned disk configurations for VM1 are shown in the following exhibit.
100 Azure virtual machines You need to ensure that VM1 can be created in an Availability Zone. Which two settings should you modify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Use managed disks B. Availability options C. OS disk type D. Size E. Image
Correct Answer: AE
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Which Of the following IEEE 802.11 standards is also known as Wi-Fi 6?
A. 802.11ac B. 802.11n C. 802.11ax D. 802.11b
QUESTION 2
Which of the following attacks is not the network layer attack?
A. IP spoofing attack B. ICMP attack C. Smurf attack D. ARP spoofing attack
QUESTION 3
CORRECT TEXT Compress the 2001:0DBB:B8:0000:C030:0000:0000:09A0:CDEF address.___________(if the answer contains letters, capitalize them.) Correct Answer: pending
QUESTION 4
ON a stateful inspection Firewall where there is no session table, when the status detection mechanism is enabled and the second packet (CYN+ACK) of 3-way hadshakes reaches the firewall. Which of the following statements is true?
A. If the firewall security policy permits packets to pass, the session table is created. B. By default, when status detection is disabled and the permit policy is configured packets can pass. C. Packets must pass the firewall, and a session table is established. D. If the firewall security policy permits packets to pass, the packets can pass the firewall.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements regarding an IP prefix are true?
A. An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and cannot match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the same time.
B. An IP prefix filter cannot be used to filter data packets.
C. An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and can match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the same time.
D. An IP prefix filter can be used to filter data packets.
QUESTION 6
Preferences of routing protocols determine the sequence In which a router selects a route among routes to the same destination /earned through different routing protocols.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements regarding different LSA types is false?
A. LS Request packets contain only LS Type, LS ID, and Advertising Router.
B. LS Ack packets contain complete LSA information.
C. DD packets contain only LSA summary information, including LS Type, LS ID, Advertising Router, and LS Sequence Number.
D. LS Update packets contain complete LSA information.
QUESTION 8
A local router runs IS-IS and its command output is shown in the following figure. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The circuit level of S4/0/0 is Level-1. B. S4/0/0 supports IPv6. C. S4/0/0 sends IIH packets at the interval of 30s. D. The cost of S4/0/0 is 20.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements regarding the stateful inspection firewall is true?
A. When the stateful inspection firewall checks packets, packets of one same connection are not correlated.
B. Because UDP is a connectionless protocol, so the stateful inspection firewall cannot match UDP packets with the status table.
C. The stateful inspection firewall only needs to match the first data packet against a rule, and the subsequent packets of the connection are matched directly in the state table.
D. The stateful inspection firewall needs to match the rules for each incoming packet.
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP Drag the following VRRP states to the corresponding working mechanisms. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP What is the correct procedure for a VLAN pool to assign terminals to VLANs. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12
The Interface \P address and VRRP virtual IP address can be the same.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
Verify answer:
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7
Q8
Q9
Q10
Q11
Q12
A
D
pending
A
D
B
D
C
C
IAMGE
IMAGE
A
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Which authentication modes does AAA support? (Choose three).
A. None B. Local C. Radius D. 802.1X
QUESTION 2
The network administrator wants to improve the performance of network transmission, what steps can the administrator take? (Choose two)
A. Change the work mode to full duplex of each end station. B. Link the end stations together using a switch. C. Change the work mode to half duplex of each end station. D. Link the end stations together using a hub.
QUESTION 3
Port aggregation is the aggregation of multiple ports to form an aggregation group to implement load balancing among member ports. Port aggregation is in () implemented on.
A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer
QUESTION 4
As shown in the figure, the H frame contains an IP packet sent from Host A to Host B, and the destination MAC address of the H frame is ().
A. MAC address of G0/0/1 interface of RTB B. MAC address of G0/0/1 interface of RTC C. Host B\\’s MAC address D. RTC G0/0/0 interface MAC address
QUESTION 5
According to the figure, which of the following statements is true?
A. Host A and Host B can communicate with each other only when the IP addresses of host A and host B have the same masks. B. Host A can successfully ping host B. C. The IP address mask of Host A is different from that of Host B. Therefore, Host A and Host B cannot communicate with each other. D. The broadcast addresses of Host A and Host B are the same.
QUESTION 6
The administrator wishes to update the configuration file of an AR2200 router using a USB cable. How can this be achieved? (Choose two)
A. The administrator should connect the USB cable between the terminal and the mini USB port of the AR2200 router. B. The administrator should connect the USB cable between the terminal and the USB port of the AR2200 router. C. The AR2200 router cannot support configuration updates through a USB cable. D. The administrator should install the mini USB drivers on the terminal after connecting the USB.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following protocols is used in Frame Relay to map the address to DLCI dynamically?
A. ARP protocol B. RARP protocol C. InARP protocol D. Map protocol
QUESTION 8
An administrator discovered he/she was unable to use TFTP to transfer files to the router. Which of the following describes the likely reason for this?
A. The TFTP service had been disabled on the router. B. TCP port 69 of the server had been blocked. C. UDP port 69 of the server had been blocked. D. The username and password had been modified.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following MAC addresses are not aged out? (Choose two.)
A. Static MAC address B. Dynamic MAC address C. Blackhole MAC address D. Port MAC address
QUESTION 10
The Eth-Trunk frame forwarding mechanism used to prevent changes in the data sequence forwards frames based on which of the following parameters?
A. The same source or destination IP address B. The same source or destination MAC address. C. The same protocol type. D. The same source or destination port number.
QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands can be used to change the device name to huawei?
A. sysname huawei B. hostname huawei C. rename huawei D. do name huawei
QUESTION 12
The following description of the specified port for the spanning tree is correct.
A. There is only one designated port per bridge B. The designated port can forward configuration BPDUs to its connected network segment. C. The port on the root switch must not be the designated port. D. Specify the port to forward configuration BPDUs from this switch to the root switch.
QUESTION 13
When STP is running on Huawei Sx7 series switches, the priority of the switch is () by default.
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Huawei H35-660 online exam practice test
Exam answers are at the end of the article
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the most advanced aspect of the development phase of IoV? _SC
A. Fully Automated parking B. Lase change assistance C. Automated driving urban areas D. Automatic driving in lanes
QUESTION 2
In the IMT2020 vision, which of following is correct ratio of 5G servic e delay to the 4G service delay?
A. 1/100 B. 1/20 C. 1/10 D. 1/50
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the maximum round trip time (RTT) of 5G -V2X?
A. 10ms B. 5ms C. 20ms . D. 50ms
QUESTION 4
Sub-3 GHz spectrum resources can be dynamically shared with 5G spectrums by using the cloud AIR technology.
A. True B. False
QUESTION 5
Which of the following are commercial products in the 5G terminal industry?
A. vehicle-mounted mobile module B. mobile handheld terminal C. mobile MIFI hotspot device D. home CPE gateway
QUESTION 6
Which of following are the key of intelligent distributed power distribution automation on commination network?
A. Millisecond-level ultra-low latency B. high isolation C. high reliability D. massive access form tens of millions of terminals
QUESTION 7
Which of the following are points of electronic power telecommunication?
A. public network GPRS with low rate and long delay unable to provision telecontrol, tele indication and telemetering, slow fault locating B. high cost for monitoring service carried by operator 4G network C. low security and reliability of electric power services carried on public network D. incapable of collecting electric consumption information, costly manual meter reading .
QUESTION 8
Which of the following massive MIMO statements are correct? -MC
A. Massive MIMO uses Large-scale antenna arrays B. Massive MIMO improves capacity of a single call C. Only horizontal beamforming is available D. Legacy wide beams are replaced with narrow beams by adjusting then beam weight.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements is incorrect about uploading AR/VR teaching content to the cloud? -SC
A. AR/VR images and audios are efficiently encoded into audio and video streams in the client. B. The cloud computing capability is used to run, render display, and control AP Applications. C. Rendering with high requirements on latency is deployed close to user that service data does not need to be transmitted to the core network. D. The edge cloud deployment architecture is recommended to meet the low latency requirements of services.
QUESTION 10
In an industrial internet, sensors are used to monitor the status. which one of the following is the network requirement case?
A. massive connections B. high reliability C. low delay D. large bandwidth
QUESTION 11
Which of the following items are included in the 5G phase 3 test led by IMT – 2020 (5G) promotion Group?
A. Field test of the NSA architecture. B. Inter-vendor compatibility test. C. Indoor test of the SA architecture D. Field test of the SA architecture
QUESTION 12
Which one of the following services belongs to URLLS application scenario? -SC
A. Automated driving B. Intelligent meter reading C. Intelligent parking D. AR/VR
QUESTION 13
Which of the following NSA networking statements are correct? _MC
A. Capable of provisioning new services such as URLLC B. LOW Investment in the initial phase of 5G deployment C. Requiring continuous coverage provided by the 5G base solutions D. Deployment based on legacy 4G networks
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Huawei H13-531 online practice test
The answer is at the end of the article
QUESTION 1
Alternative schemes need to be considered in the design of the scheme.
When the original design scheme can not be implemented, the alternative scheme is considered.
A. True
B. False
QUESTION 2
Huawei desktop cloud application virtualization solutions, as opposed to desktop cloud solutions, which components have been added? (Multiple choice)
A. UNS
B. APS
C. RD Licensing
D. VMG
QUESTION 3
The following are the business processes for the main roles of the FusionAccess DaaS system based on self-service systems.
After users log in to the FusionAccess cloud desktop using TC, they find that they can not use a USB storage device.
Which of the following methods can be used to quickly identify the fault location?
A. Re-install the driver for the VM, in the VM Device Manager, check to see if there is a USB storage device inserted.
B. Check whether there are devices in the WI Floating Window Setup Bar, to determine if this is a TC-side or VM-side problem.
C. Install the driver on the TC side and then check that the USB storage device is working properly.
D. Reconnect the USB storage device.
QUESTION 5
What are the following steps belonging to the Huawei BCManager disaster recovery management process? (Multiple choice)
A. BCManager installation deployment, expansion, and upgrade
B. Build a basic disaster recovery environment
C. Create a disaster recovery object protection group and related policies
D. Disaster Recovery Testing and Disaster Recovery
QUESTION 6
The user receives an alert message on the FusionManager interface: “ALM- ServiceCenter.9804 VM is missing on the Hypervisor”.
What is the correct description of the alert? (Multiple choice)
A. The user deleted the virtual machine created by FusionManage on the virtualized environment (FusionCompute or VMware).
B. FusionManager automatically verifies the virtual machine information, which FusionManager generates when the virtual machine information on the FusionManager is not consistent with the information on the virtualized environment (FusionCompute or VMware).
C. Virtualization Environment (FusionCompute or VMware) After the upgrade or backup is restored, the data does not match the FusionManager.
D. After the alarm occurs, you need to log in to the VDC administrator to delete the corresponding virtual machines in the virtual machine list.
QUESTION 7
In order to ensure the normal and efficient operation of business applications, in the use of Huawei cloud computing environment, it is necessary to virtual machine computing/storage/ network and other resources to optimize.
A. True
B. False
QUESTION 8
Which of the following steps are involved in the migration process for Huawei FusionSphere services?
A. Migration assessment
B. Program design
C. Migration implementation
D. Migration and acceptance
QUESTION 9
When FusionAccess issues linked-clone virtual machine, the issuing user is written to the permission group.
A. True
B. False
QUESTION 10
In the Huawei cloud computing solution, in order to enhance the virtual machine\’s graphics processing power; you can configure the GPU to the virtual machine, which of the following configuration can be included? (Multiple Choice)
A. GPU pass-through
B. GPU virtualization
C. GPU sharing
D. GPU aggregation
QUESTION 11
In FusionSphere solutions, the VSA ManageDVS network is in the plane of the network with management can not be exchanged.
A. True
B. False
QUESTION 12
UpdateTool supports the upgrade and patch update of Huawei\’s cloud computing solutions.
Which of the following descriptions of the UpdateTool patch process are wrong? (Multiple choice)
A. Patch process consists of the following steps: New project, patch updates, and submit the project.
B. If the node patch update fails, you can “rollback” the node
C. Patch process, the project can be rollback after submitted
D. There is no limit to the number of nodes that can be distributed, checked, upgraded, or rolled back during the entire patch upgrade.
QUESTION 13
Huawei Cloud Computing Solution is to meet the business requirements of the enterprise, which of the following features are supported?
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Huawei H12-311 exam practice questions
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QUESTION 1
What type of frame does the ACK frame belong to in the WLAN?
A. Management frame B. Control frame C. Data frame D. Empty data frame
QUESTION 2
In an 802.11 frame, the terminal needs to obtain access rights to the wireless medium, and what kind of control message is to be sent?
A. RTS B. CTS C. ACK D. PS-Poll
QUESTION 3
There are many video conferences in large companies, and QoS generally adopts the service model.
A. Best Effort model B. IntServ model C. FIFO model D. DiffServ model
QUESTION 4
What is the coverage of the AP (Select 3 Answers).
A. AP transmit power B. Antenna gain C. AP size D. Transmission loss
QUESTION 5
The 802.11n standard uses dual-band (2.4 GHz and 5 GHz), the theoretical transmission rate can reach up to 300 Mbps, and the actual test rate can reach more than 100 Mbps.
A. True B. False
QUESTION 6
The cable used in the project cannot theoretically exceed the meter.
A. 50 B. 80 C. 100 D. 150
QUESTION 7
For the CAPWAP protocol, the following description is wrong.
A. Transmission protocol between AC and thin AP B. Transmission protocol between thin AP and wireless client C. Developed by the CAPWAP Working Group The development of the D. CAPWAP protocol draws on the useful features of other protocols.
QUESTION 8
Which modulation method does the following picture belong to?
A. amplitude modulation B. frequency modulation C. phase modulation D. modulation
QUESTION 9
IEEE is the standard organization responsible for the use of wireless frequencies in the United States.
A. True B. False
QUESTION 10
What is the function of the AC in the wireless network (Select 3 Answers)?
A. Centralized management AP B. Implement roaming function C. Send beacon frame D. Wireless intrusion detection
QUESTION 11
Which of the following options are EDCA parameters (Select 2 Answers)?
A. AIFSN B. SIFS C. DIFS D. TXOPLimit
QUESTION 12
In 1999, the IEEE 802.11a standard was developed. The standard specifies that the WLAN operating frequency band is 5.15 to 5.825 GHz, and the data transmission rate reaches 11 Mbps.
A. True B. False
QUESTION 13
Which type of message is used in the 802.11 frame for the terminal to receive data packets in the power saving mode?
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Huawei H12-224 online exam practice
Answers announced at the end of the article
QUESTION 1
If the Router Priority of a router is set to 0, this router cannot be elected as a DR or a BDR.
A. True
B. False
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding MUX VLAN is false?
A. Each group VLAN must be bound to a principal VLAN.
B. If the VLAN ID has been used by the principal VLAN, this VLAN cannot be used for the VLANIF interface, superVLAN, or sub-VLAN.
C. After MUX VLAN is enabled on an interface, VLAN mapping and VLAN stacking can be configured on the interface.
D. An enterprise can use the principal port to connect to the enterprise server, a separate port to connect to enterprise customers, and a group port to connect to enterprise employees. Enterprise customers and employees can both access enterprise servers, enterprise employees can communicate with each other, enterprise customers cannot communicate with each other, and enterprise customers and employees cannot communicate with each other.
QUESTION 3
A DHCP client needs to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server when accessing a network for the first time. When the client accesses the network again, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The DHCP client broadcasts a DHCP Discover packet. The DHCP server replies to the packet.
B. The DHCP client only needs to broadcast a DHCP Request packet containing the IP address obtained last time, but does not need to send a DHCP Discover packet again.
C. After receiving the DHCP Discover packet, the DHCP server sends a DHCP Offer packet containing the leased IP address and other settings to the DHCP client.
D. After receiving the DHCP Request packet, the DHCP server returns a DHCP ACK packet if the requested IP address is not allocated to another client.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following information can be learned based on the industry background of the project?
A. Common solutions in the industry
B. Problems to be resolved by the project
C. Organizational structure of customers
D. Implementation scope of the project
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about the BFD demand mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. The local system periodically sends BFD control packets, and the remote system detects the BFD control packets sent from the local system.
B. The local system detects the BFD control packets sent by itself.
C. If one system does not receive any BFD packets from its peer within a detection period, it advertises a session Down event.
D. Each system confirms its connections with other systems in a particular method. After a BFD session is set up, BFD control packets are no longer sent.
QUESTION 6
An OSPF neighbor relationship fails to be established and the display ospf error command output is as follows.
Which of the following is the probable cause?
A. Router IDs conflict.
B. Area IDs are mismatched.
C. Network masks are inconsistent.
D. Authentication types are inconsistent.
QUESTION 7
Assume that the following commands are run to configure BGP:
Which statements about the configurations are true? (Choose two.)
A. The global configuration is preferred. Therefore, the timer values for peer 1.1.1.2 are “keepalive 30 hold 90.”
B. The peer configuration is preferred. Therefore, the timer values for peer 1.1.1.2 are “keepalive 10 hold 30.”
C. The smaller one between the global and peer timer values is used. Therefore, the timer values of peer 1.1.1.2 is “keepalive 10 hold 30”.
D. The default configuration is “timer keepalive 60 hold 180.” Therefore, peer 1.1.1.2 can detect connection faults faster than the default configuration.
QUESTION 8
In a MPLS VPN network, two-layer MPLS labels are added into data packets before they are transmitted over the public network. Which of the following statements regarding data packet processing are true? (Choose two.)
A. The penultimate hop removes the outer label before forwarding the data packet to a peer PE.
B. The IP data packet received by the peer PE does not carry labels.
C. The penultimate hop removes the outer label if the outer label in the data packet is explicit null label 3.
D. The peer PE sends the data packet to the correct VPN based on the inner label.
QUESTION 9
Which statement about ARP proxy is false?
A. The ARP proxy, namely, the gateway, sends ARP request for the host. The MAC address in the ARP request packet is the MAC address of the host.
B. The ARP proxy, namely, the gateway, sends ARP request for the host. The MAC address in the ARP request packet is the MAC address of its own interface.
C. ARP proxy is also called promiscuous ARP or ARP hack.
D. The ARP proxy allows the hosts on the networks with the same network ID to communicate with each other.
QUESTION 10
Complex traffic classification can be performed based on which of the following packet information? (Choose three.)
A. Packet priority
B. Source and destination addresses
C. Total Length of the Packet
D. Source and destination port numbers
QUESTION 11
The Origin attribute of the BGP route that is imported by using the network command is IGP.
A. True
B. False
QUESTION 12
Which type of BGP route can be added to the BGP routing table?
A. All BGP routes learned from peers
B. Only the routes learned from IBGP peers
C. Only the routes learned from EBGP peers
D. Only optimal routes
QUESTION 13
Which of the following Statement is false?
A. The OSPF Router ID of the local router is 1.1.1.1.
B. The OSPF Router ID of the neighbor is 2.2.2.2.
C. The OSPF Router ID of the neighbor is larger and thus the neighbor acts as a DR.
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