Latest Updated Huawei HCIE-R&S exam dumps with PDF and VCE

Huawei-H12-261-Exam-Dumps

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Here, I share a part of Huawei H12-261 practice questions

All exercise answers will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

As shown in the figure, in the context of the IPv4 IPv6 ISIS NET SEL 00 ring, the address in the field begins with the
final value.

huawei h12-261 exam questions q1

A. Correct

B. Error

QUESTION 2

When the deployment needs to configure the parameter LLQ,? Bandwidth Meaning What is the meaning of the parameter

A. Provide a built-in policer to limit the maximum available time of the queue.

B. The parameters should be as small as possible. It means that the bandwidth is always reserved, LLQ, even if the
bandwidth parameter is used, the interface is available.

C. It indicates the reference to calculate the sudden size of the built-in tactical counter bucket.

D. The options parameter is a-OK, LLQ because it starts with the other columns.

QUESTION 3

ISIS P2P, LSP, PSNP, LSDB protocol in the broadcast network and the network. When the router receives it, it needs to
use the line to ensure synchronization.

A. True

B. False

QUESTION 4

Which of the following statements regarding BGP load balancing are false?

A. The AS_Path attribute values of equal-cost routes for load balancing must be different.

B. When BGP load balancing is implemented, the local device can change the next-hop address of routes to its own
address when advertising the routes to IBGP peer groups only if the peer next-hop- local command is configured.

C. Load balancing can be implemented among BGP routes with different origins but having the same destination
network segment.

D. Load balancing can be implemented among IBGP routes and EBGP routes having the same destination on the public
network.

QUESTION 5

If the interface of the router is out of A GigabitEthernet0/0/0 OSPFv3 Hello Option 0x000013, the field
value is the following.
The correct one is more ( )

A. The interface of the router belongs to the area A GigabitEthernet0/0/0 NSSA

B. The router will participate in the routing calculation. A GigabitEthernet0/0/0 IPv6 meter

C. Router is capable A OSPFv3 standby forwarding device

D. Router Support Flooding

QUESTION 6

In the command, ipv4-address { mask | mask-length } [ as-set | attribute-policy route-policy-name1 ] detail suppressed | origin-policy route-policy-name2 | suppress-policy route-policy-name3 ] Parameters can be used to influence Summary The route and its result. What is correct about the command description?

A. If configured, the Suppress policy Route-production clause can also be used to pick the suppressed route. policy match is fine, The clear route will still be advertised. Other Route-policy BGP will be given to neighbors.

B. If only the matching routes are configured to participate in the aggregation Origin-policy, Route- policy is fine.

C. If you have configured the attribute Attribute-policy that can change the aggregated route,

D. If the route\’s As-set, AS_ATH AS is configured, the summary contains path information of all specific routes to
prevent routing loops.

QUESTION 7

Routers R1 and R2 are configured for BGP. Both routers are in AS 65234. Routes from Router R2 are in the BGP table
on Router R1, but not in the IP routing table. What could be the cause of this problem?

A. Synchronization is off

B. BGP multi-hop is disabled on Router R1

C. The next-hop of these routes can not reach by router R1

D. The BGP peers are down

QUESTION 8

If no area is divided, which of the following statements regarding the link-state routing protocol are true?

A. Routers in the same routing domain may repeatedly receive the same link-state information.

B. Routers in the entire routing domain have the same LSDB.

C. Each router establishes a routing domain topology.

D. Each router learns routing entries from updated routing information and adds them to the routing table.

E. The router sends all link-state information from a neighbor to all the other neighbors to ensure data synchronization in the database.

QUESTION 9

What is correct about the following description? Filter-policy

A. In the middle, Filter-Policy, OSPF ASBR type 5 LSA type 7 LSA can be generated for filtering

B. The previous list can be used for both route suffix filtering and packet filtering.

C. Filter-Policy can receive or route the information line to filter the chain status, and modify the attributes of the route
entry.

D. Pre-use list When route filtering is applied, the entry IP IP-prefix 1 deny 0.0.0.0 0 less-equal 32 means that only the
default route is matched.

QUESTION 10

You must configure a router for Policy-Based Routing (PBR). PBR allows network administrators to implement routing
policies to allow or deny paths on which of the following? (Multiple Choice)

A. Protocol

B. Identification of a particular end system

C. Application

D. Throughput

E. Size of packets

QUESTION 11

About FTP Protocol Which of the following descriptions is correct

A. In the mode, the client completes the control and data FTP Passive, the TCP user\’s initialization

B. In the mode, the server is connected to the command FTP Active, “PORT is used to tell the client which port it wants
to send data to.

C. FTP TCP always uses a remote control information and data information

D. FTP TCP 20, ICP 21 Always use the far port to establish a data session. Use the port to establish control.

E. Session E.FTP TCP 21, TCP 20 Always use the far port to establish a data session Use the port to establish a
control session

QUESTION 12

Source Specific Multicast (SSM)is being used throughout the HW IP Multicast network. Which of the following three
statements about SSM are true? (Choose three.)

A. SSM uses Shortest-Path Trees Only

B. There are no RPs to worry about

C. SSM is best suited for applications that are of the Many-to-Many category

D. SSM uses shared Trees only

E. The use of SSM is recommended when there are many sources and it is desirable to keep the amount of route
state in the routers in the network to a minimum.

F. SSM is best suited for applications that are of the one-to-many category

QUESTION 13

The following information about the MPLS label describes the error?

A. The length of the MPLS 4 label is encapsulated between the link layer of the road and the network.

B. By default, the support device PHP PHP Egress 3 feature, supported point allocation, the second-to-last hop point,
the section label value

C. If the bottom label stack in the identifier is S=0 IP, it indicates that the label stack label is directly forwarded.

D. When the label value is 0, IPv4, the label is displayed. The label should be played, and the text must be based on the
report.

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
AABCBCDBCDCEAABCEAABFC

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QUESTION 1
BFD control packets are encapsulated in UDP packets for transmission. What is the destination port number of multihop BFD control packets?
A. 2784
B. 3784
C. 4784
D. 5784

 

QUESTION 2
There are multiple types of LDP messages. Which functions can be implemented by LDP session messages? (Multiple
Choice)
A. Monitor the TCP connection integrity of LDP sessions.
B. Terminate incomplete label request messages.
C. Release labels.
D. Negotiate parameters for setting up an LDP session.

 

QUESTION 3
Congestion means that the service rate is reduced because of insufficient network resources Congestion avoidance
technologies include RED and WRED.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

 

QUESTION 4
VXLAN is irrelevant to SDN technology.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements regarding forwarding equivalence class (FEC) in MPLS are false? (Multiple Choice)
A. Packets with the same FEC are processed differently on a MPLS network.
B. FECs can be divided filexibly by source IP address, destination IP address, source port, destination port, protocol
type, VPN, or any combinations of them.
C. MPLS classifies packets with the same forwarding processing mode into one FEC.
D. One FEC has only one unique label marker.

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements regarding MAC address spoofing attacks is false?
A. Attackers initiate MAC address spoofing attacks using the MAC address learning mechanism.
B. Attackers send data frames with forged MAC address to the switch to initiate MAC address spoofing attacks.
C. When MAC address spoofing attacks occur, the switch may learn incorrect mapping between MAC addresses and IP
addresses.
D. When MAC address spoofing attacks occur, the switch may send packets to the attacker.

 

QUESTION 7
Which queue technology is used to implement the Best-Effort Service model?
A. FIFO
B. WFQ
C. PQ
D. LQ

 

QUESTION 8
In the SDN network architecture, which device is used to calculate the path and deliver the flow table?
A. Application server
B. Controller
C. Orchestrator
D. Device

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements regarding Service Chain of the Agile Controller are true? (Multiple Choice)
A. The Service Chain component uses a user control list (UCL) to implement access control by user level. The ACL
rules are defined based on the source security group, destination security group, and port number.
B. An orchestration device, usually a switch, directs service flows to a service device.
C. A service device processes the service flows directed to it by an orchestration device. Generally, firewall, antivirus,
and online behavior management devices can function as service devices.
D. A service chain indicates the service data passing through the GRE tunnel.

 

QUESTION 10
Which remote alarm notification modes are supported by eSight? (Multiple Choice)
A. Email
B. Voice
C. SMS message
D. WeChat

 

QUESTION 11
How is OPEX defined?
A. Maintenance cost
B. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
C. Operating cost
D. OandM costs

 

QUESTION 12
Which IP precedence value represents the critical service traffic?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6

 

QUESTION 13
Which are lower-layer physical devices of NFV framework? (Multiple Choice)
A. Storage device
B. Network device
C. Server
D. Air conditioning system

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
CADAAADCCBABCACACABC

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QUESTION 1

RTA is a source\’s DR and RTB is an RP. A multicast source sends multicast data to RTA but RTB cannot find any
information about the multicast source (registered by using the PIM Register message). Why? (Select 3 answers)

A. RTB has no unicast routes to RTA,
B. RTA fails to learn RP information.
C. RTA has no unicast routes to RTB.
D. The RPlearned by RTA is not RTB.

QUESTION 2

A broadcast and an NBMA network, each having two or more routers, must have both DR and BDR.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

QUESTION 3

We can prevent a router from ever becoming a DR or BDR by configuring an OSPF Priority of zero,

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

QUESTION 4

Which statement about OSPF is false?

A. The router with a higher Router Priority has a higher DR election priority.
B. When two routers have the same Router Priority, the one with a larger value for Router ID has a higher DR election
priority.
C. If a DR fails, the BDR automatically takes over as the DR and a new BDR is elected.
D. If a BDR fails, the DR will not take over as the BDR and waits for the fault recovery to handle the situation. No new
BDR will be elected.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following BGP attributes are well-known mandatory attributes? (Select 3 answers)

A. ORIGIN
B. AS_PATH
C. NEXT_HOP
D. MED
E. LOCAL_PREF
F. COMMUNITY

QUESTION 6

How does the community attribute of the BGP route set by routing policies affect route selection?

A. The Community attribute directly affects route selection because it must be compared during the route selection
process.
B. The Community attribute does not affect route selection because it is non-transitive and cannot be transmitted
between routers.
C. Routes are classified by the Community attribute which indirectly affects route selection. Different route attributes
such as the Local-Preference and MED values can be set for routes in different communities.

QUESTION 7

When a routing protocol imports routes discovered by other routing protocols, it must import only the routes that meet the conditions and set attributes for the imported routes. In such a case, a route policy can be created.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

QUESTION 8

Which of the following routers can initiate SFT switchover on a PIM-SM network? (Select 2 answers)

A. last-hop router
B. Intermediate router
C. RP
D. Source\’s DR

QUESTION 9

What are the functions of an IGMFV2 Query message? (Select 3 answers)

A. A router sends IGMPv2 Query messages to collect group memberships of receiver hosts.
B. A router sends IGMPv2 Query messages to elect a querier.
C. A working router sends Query messages periodically.
D. Based on IGMPv2 Query messages, receiver hosts can unicast Report messages to the querier by obtaining its
address.

QUESTION 10

What command must be configured to establish a BGP connection between indirectly connected EBGP peers?

A. peer connect-interface
B. peer valid-TTL-hops
C. peer ignore
D. peer BGP-max-hop

QUESTION 11

A BGP finite state machine has the following states: Active OpenConfirm Idle Established OpenSent What is the state
transition sequence to establish a successful BGP peer relationship?

A. Idle-OpenSent-OpenConfirm-Active-Established
B. Idle-Active-OpenSent-OpenConfirm-Established
C. Active-Id le-OpenSent-OpenConfirm-Established
D. Idle-Active-OpenConfirm-OpenSent-Established

QUESTION 12

IGP routes can be installed into the BGP routing table by running either the network or import- route command.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

QUESTION 13

Which of the following concepts should a network administrator know while using VLSM technology for subnetting?
(Select 3 answers)

A. A subnet is composed of only summarized routes.
B. A subnet can address a host or be further subnetted.
C. The routing updates must carry subnet mask information.
D. The summarized networks must have the same high-order bit.

Huawei H12-221 Exam Answer

Exam NumberExam Answer
Q1Correct Answer: BCD
Q2Correct Answer: B
Q3Correct Answer: A
Q4Correct Answer: D
Q5Correct Answer: ABC
Q6Correct Answer: C
Q7Correct Answer: A
Q8Correct Answer: AC
Q9Correct Answer: ABC
Q10Correct Answer: D
Q11Correct Answer: B
Q12Correct Answer: A
Q13Correct Answer: BCD

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QUESTION 1

::1/128 is an IPv6 loopback address.

A. True
B. False

QUESTION 2

What benefits does port aggregation yield? (Choose three)

A. Improves link bandwidth
B. Implements load sharing
C. Improves network reliability
D. Facilitates data copy for analysis

QUESTION 3

Which of the following applications can be used to detect the path along which the data packets are
transmitted from the source to the destination?

A. Route
B. Netstat
C. Tracert
D. Send

QUESTION 4

The following description of the Layer 2 Ethernet switch is incorrect ().

A. Ability to learn MAC address
B. It is necessary to make certain modifications to the three-layer header of the forwarded message, and then forward
it.
C. Forward according to the Layer 2 header information of the Ethernet frame
D. Layer 2 Ethernet switch works at the data link layer

QUESTION 5

Which of the following commands can be used to check the session status of a PPPoE client?

A. display IP interface brief
B. display current-configuration
C. display PPPoE-client session packet
D. display PPPoE-client session summary

QUESTION 6

As shown in the broadcast network, OSPF runs on four routers and is in the same area and on the same network
segment. OSPF A DR and multiple BDRs will be automatically elected to achieve better backup results.

Huawei H12-211 exam questions q6

A. Yes
B. Wrong

QUESTION 7

When a router forwards a packet, if it does not match the corresponding detail route and there is no default route, the
the router will discard the packet directly.

A. Correct
B. Error

QUESTION 8

The router ID of OSPFv3 can be generated automatically by the system.

A. Correct
B. Error

QUESTION 9

As shown in the figure, there is a web server in the private network that needs to provide more HTTP services to the
public network users, so the network administrator needs to be at the gateway. Configure NAT on the router RTA

huawei H12-211 exam questions q9

A. [RTA-Serial1/0/1] nat server protocol TCP global 202.10.10.1 www inside 192.168.1.1 8080
B. [RTA-Serial1/0/1] nat server protocol TCP global 192.168.1.1 www inside 202.10.10.1 8080
C. [RTA-Gigabitethernet0/0/1] nat server protocol TCP global 202.10.10.1 www inside 192.168.1.1
D. [RTA-Gigabitethernet0/0/1]] nat server protocol TCP global 192.168.1.1 www inside 202.10.10.1

QUESTION 10

Refer to the graphic. RTA is a PPPoE client and sends PADI packets to Server

A. Which distribution method is used for sending PADI packets?
B. unicast
C. multicast
D. broadcast
E. anycast

QUESTION 11

[RTA]acl 2002 [RTA-acl-basic-2002]rule permit source 20.1.1.1 0 [RTA-acl-basic-2002]rule permit source 30.1.1.1 0
Refer to the configuration output. A network administrator configured the ACL on router RTA, as shown. Which of the
following statements regarding the ruling order are correct? (Choose two).

A. The rule number of the first rule is 1
B. The rule number of the first rule is 5
C. The rule number of the second rule is 2
D. The rule number of the second rule is 10

QUESTION 12

Refer to the graphic. RTA and RTB are connected to the same Frame Relay switch and use the same DLCI number, which following is correct? (Choose two).

A. RTA and RTB must be associated with the same PVC
B. RTA and RTB can be associated with different PVC\’s
C. The DLCI on the different physical interfaces can be the same
D. The DLCI on the different physical interfaces cannot be the same

QUESTION 13

Refer to the graphic. Which statements correctly explains the forwarding behavior between RTA and RTE? (Choose
two)

A. When the network uses OSPF, data will be forwarded along the path via S1/0/0
B. When the network uses RIPv2, data will be forwarded along the path via S1/0/0.
C. When the network uses OSPF, data will be forwarded along the path via E0/0/1.
D. When the network uses RIPv2, data will be forwarded along the path via S2/0/0.

Huawei H12-211 Exam Answer

Exam NumberExam Answer
Q1Correct Answer: A
Q2Correct Answer: ABC
Q3Correct Answer: C
Q4Correct Answer: B
Q5Correct Answer: D
Q6Correct Answer: B
Q7Correct Answer: A
Q8Correct Answer: B
Q9Correct Answer: A
Q10Correct Answer: C
Q11Correct Answer: BD
Q12Correct Answer: BC
Q13Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1

U1900 and the original traditional PBX can be connected through () to protect customers\’ early investment () (Multiple
choice)

A. AT0
B. PRA
C. SIP
D. H.323

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2

In the H.460 public-private network traversal network, which of the following functions does TS need to have? ()

A. NAT
B. GK Server
C. GW Server
D. H.460.19 Server

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

When the number of bills exceeds the limit of the number of bill pools of the U1900 unified gateway, which statement is correct? () (multiple choice)

A. can be set to choose to overwrite old bills
B. can be set to discard new bills
C. It may cause the unified gateway to fail to register new users
D. May cause all users to be unable to initiate calls

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 4

SMC2.0 added TE terminal search in a manageable way to 10%, unable to continue, possible reasons are () (multiple
choice)

A. SNMP V2C read community name or SNMP V3 user encryption method is inconsistent
B. SNMP V2C read community name or SNMP V3 user password is inconsistent
C. Device SNMP is not enabled
D. API account or password issue

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5

H.264 encoding, the main reason for blocking is () (single choice)

A. The macroblock is in the intense motion area, the difference is big, resulting in obvious edges
B. The quantization level of the coding block jumps, resulting in sudden brightness changes at the boundary
C. Unreasonable division of macroblock coding modes, resulting in false edges
D. Deblocking filter (Deblocking) is not strong enough, resulting in not smooth edges

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Add active and standby SCs on SMC2.0, which of the following statements is correct () (multiple choice)

A. The license information of the active SC and the backup SC must be the same
B. In the process of SC active/standby configuration, the “Mode” parameter indicates the working status of the SC, the
“Mode” value is 1 for standby, and the “Mode” value is 2 for active
C. The service IP is a virtual IP. The active SC and the standby SC share this virtual service IP to provide external
registration and call services
D. The management IP address and service IP address of the active SC can be in two different network segments

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7

One codec rate is 64kbps, and the packaging time is 20ms. What is the IP band occupied by the codec? The width is ()
kbps (Note: IP/UDP/RTP header is 40 Bytes, here 1kbps=1000bps)

A. 83.6
B. 76.6
C. 90.4
D. 80

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

In the H.460 public and private network traversing dual SC networking, the communication between the terminal and
Client GK follows the () protocol (Single choice)

A. H.460
B. H.323
C. H.460.18/19
D. Q.931

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

If AAC_LD uses a coding rate of 48kbps and a packing time of 20ms, what is the IP bandwidth occupied by the codec ()
kbps

A. 80
B. 74.4
C. 64
D. 76.6

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

The human eye is more sensitive to brightness than to color. () Correct or Wrong

A. Correct
B. Wrong

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

In the SIP protocol, the Cancel transaction can be used to cancel the Update transaction. () Right or Wrong

A. Right
B. Wrong

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

An enterprise has purchased 3 U1960s, and the number of IP phone users is about 2500. Which networking method is
suitable for these 3 U1960s? () (single choice)

A. Multi-node centralized call management networking
B. Peer-to-peer distributed call management networking
C. Convergent Distributed Call Management Network

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Which of the following methods can reset the web login password of the TE terminal? () Multiple choice

A. When the system is just started, long-press the mode button of the TE30 terminal
B. When the system is running normally, long-press the Reset button on the TE60 terminal
C. Login to the TE40 terminal via SSH and enter web password 0
D. Restore factory settings via remote control

Correct Answer: ABCD


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ServiceNow CIS-APM exam questions and answers have been updated from Lead4Pass

CIS-APM exam

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QUESTION #1

What are the 4 sections of the APM portal home page that are aligned to The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)? (Choose four.)

A. Information Portfolio
B. Service Portfolio
C. Catalog Portfolio
D. Application Portfolio
E. Business Portfolio
F. Technology Portfolio
Correct Answer: ADEF
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/concept/application-portfolio-management-home.html

QUESTION #2

What is the name of the basic plugin for the APM application?

A. Application Portfolio Management
B. Business Planner
C. Financial Management for APM
D. Application Portfolio Management – ATF Tests
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/task/activate-apm.html

QUESTION #3

APM combines with several ServiceNow technologies to provide a comprehensive view of your customer\’s application
portfolio. Why would a customer want to utilize information from ServiceNow ServiceMapping? (Choose two.)

A. Identify your customer\’s applications\’ underlying technologies.
B. Identify your customer\’s application services.
C. Produce a horizontal picture of a customer\’s business applications.
D. Create an application inventory.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION #4

When you approve a retirement Business Application request, which system property determines whether a project or a demand is created?

A. sn_apm.retireBusinessApplication
B. sn_apm.retireBusinessApplicationTaskType
C. sn_apm.businessApplication
D. sn_apm.retire
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/task/manage-business-appln.html

QUESTION #5

What are the business problems that customers are trying to resolve by utilizing Application Portfolio Management(APM)? (Choose two.)

A. Gain a comprehensive understanding of business applications in the organization
B. Reduce the number of governance controls
C. Identify redundancies and decrease budgetary costs
D. Maintain relationships with Product Vendors
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/concept/application-portfolio-management.html

QUESTION #6

Which attributes can be used to categorize business applications? (Choose four.)

A. Application Score
B. Application Name
C. Application Family
D. Portfolio
E. Category
F. Business Unit
Correct Answer: BCDE

QUESTION #7

What relationship type is used to describe a relationship between a business capability and a business application?

A. Used: Used by
B. Depends on: Used by
C. Provides: Provided by
D. Runs on: Runs
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/task/establish-CI-relationship.html

QUESTION #8

What is the value of managing applications using ServiceNow?

A. Allows data collection and visualization without manual effort
B. Allows automation of retiring applications
C. Provides application owners insight to release counts
D. Provides top-down strategic alignment in the PMO
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION #9

During the customer workshop, Kelly was identified as needing a role that would grant access to create bubble charts,
set up application classification attributes, and assess indicators. Which role should be assigned to Kelly?

A. sn_apm.apm_admin
B. sn_apm.apm_user
C. sn_apm.apm_analyst
D. business_planner
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfolio
management/task/create-application-indicators.html

QUESTION #10

What are the stages of the APM rationalization process?

A. Measure, Evaluate, Decide, Take Action, Baseline
B. Identify, Measure, Evaluate, Decide, Take Action
C. Identify, Measure, Decide, Take Action, Communicate
D. Identify, Measure, Evaluate, Take Action, Certify
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=v2iw0UVkxmU (6:33)

QUESTION #11

Stephen discovers that his customer is looking to achieve Basic Rationalization including application scoring. What APM maturity level does this align to?

A. Level 2
B. Level 1
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION #12

The capability map provides a hierarchical view of the business capabilities in an organization. How many levels does the capability hierarchy support in its series?

A. 7
B. 8
C. 10
D. 6
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/paris-it-business-management/page/product/applicationportfoliomanagement/task/create-a-business-capability.html

QUESTION #13

What are the three segments of the Business Application Costing Model? (Choose three.)

A. Business Processes
B. Manufacturers
C. Business Applications
D. IT Shared Services
E. Business Units
Correct Answer: CDE
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/it-finance/
concept/preconfigured-prescriptive-cost-models-two.html


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QUESTION 1
Which types of host ports are supported by the 2200 V3? (Multiple Choice)
A. 16/8Gbit/s FC
B. 10 Gbit/s iSCSI
C. 1 Gbit/s iSCSI
D. 10 Gbit/s FCoE E. SAS
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about SAN?
A. SAN includes IP SAN and FC SAN
B. Server and storage equipment are connected through storage network
C. Application server and storage equipment can be expanded separately
D. SAN can provide file access and file sharing services
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
How many host ports can a 2200 V3 support?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which advantages does Dorado V3 have in the VDI scenario? (Multiple Choice)
A. Support to more virtual desktops based on high performance, inline deduplication and compression
B. No desktop boot/login storm
C. Larger storage capacity
D. Faster response of desktops
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the maximum performance (IOPS@SPC-l) that OceanStor V5 can achieve?
A. 6 Million IOPS@lms
B. 4 Million IOPS@lms
C. 3 Million IOPS@lms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Which is not a front-end port of Dorado V3?
A. 8 Gbit/s and 16 Gbit/s FC
B. 40 Gbit/s InfiniBand
C. 56 Gbit/s InfiniBand
D. 10 Gbit/s iSCSI and FCOE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
2200 V3 supports SAS host ports.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
OceanStor F V5 series and V5 series can migrate data from heterogeneous third-party storage devices without
interrupting services.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What are the major changes of OceanStor V5 compared with OceanStor V3?
A. Hardware upgrade
B. Software re-written
C. Both hardware and software completely changed
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following NL-SAS disk specifications does OceanStor V5 NOT support?
A. 2 TB
B. 3 TB
C. 4TB
D. 6 TB
E. 8 TB
F. 10 TB
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
File data stored in OceanStor 9000 is divided into N fragments and M redundant fragments, M ranges from 2 to 18.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which types of node can OceanStor 9000 support? (Multiple Choice)
A. P12E
B. P25E
C. P36E
D. C36E
E. C72
Correct Answer: ABCDE

 

QUESTION 13
Dorado V3 supports adjusting the LUN granularity based on applications.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following reasons is incorrect for RDMA communication used by some applications in the industry?
A. QandM is simplified.
B. The CPU load is reduced.
C. The communication delay is reduced.
D. The throughput is improved.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 2
NE20E-S max forwarding performance is( )now
A. 240Mpps
B. 360Mpps
C. 480Mpps
D. 960Mpps
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following switches supports MPLS?
A. S5720-LI
B. S5720-SI
C. S6720-SI
D. S5720-HI
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 4
Cisco vpc is similar to () feature of CE switch.
A. CSS
B. VS
C. iStack
D. M-LAG
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which AP supports the feature of smart antenna? (Multiple Choice)
A. AP5030DN
B. AP7050DE
C. AP7030DE
D. AP2030DN
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
Which radio frequency can AP8150DN work at? (Multiple Choice)
A. 2.4GHz + 2.4Ghz
B. 2.4GHz+ 5GHz
C. 5GHz + 5GHz
D. 2.4GHz + 5GHz + 2.4GHz
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 7
Which AR model support WIFI feature?
A. AR1220E
B. AR1220C
C. AR2220
D. AR503GW-LM7
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
VS (Virtual System) is 1:16 for CloudEngine 12800
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
CE6810U and CE5855EI can both support TRILL.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which VPNs AR G3 support? (Multiple Choice)
A. L2TP
B. GRE
C. OSPFv3
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 11
NE08E routers support STM-4 cards.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which OandM methods are supported by AR G3 routers?
A. USB-based batch deployment
B. Web GUI
C. Command Line Interface (CLI)
D. SNMP management
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 13
Which switch has no fan?
A. S5700-28P-LI
B. S5700-28X-PWR-LI
C. S5700-52P-LI
D. S5700-52X-LI
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What operations can a shared image provider perform? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Add tenants who can use a shared image
B. Share a specified image
C. Remove tenants who can use a shared image
D. Delete a shared image
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagementservice

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are acceleration scenarios supported by HUAWEI CLOUD CDN? (Choose all that apply.)
A. VOD acceleration
B. Website acceleration
C. Download acceleration
D. Whole site acceleration
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/product/cdn.html

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not a function of WAF?
A. Defense against brute force attacks on ECSs
B. Website anti-crawler
C. Data leakage prevention
D. Web tamper protection
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/product/waf.html

QUESTION 4
An EVS disk can be attached to a cloud server that comes from a different AZ as the EVS disk.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/evs_faq/evs_faq_0036.html

QUESTION 5
CBR supports one-off backup and periodic backup.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-cbr/cbr_01_0002.html

QUESTION 6
ELB supports cloud servers running different OSs.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/elb_faq/elb_faq_0064.html

QUESTION 7
The IoTA service provides complete data capabilities for IoT data developers based on IoT asset models. It
consolidates data integration, cleansing, storage, analysis, and visualization.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/en-us/solution/iot/

QUESTION 8
Which of the following about bucket operations in OBS is false?
A. Modifying a bucket
B. Formatting a bucket
C. Creating a bucket
D. Deleting a bucket
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/usermanual-obs/en-us_topic_0045853662.html

QUESTION 9
With advanced Anti-DDoS (AAD), you can change the DNS server or external service IP address to a high-defense IP
address, thereby diverting traffic to an AAD server room to scrub malicious attack traffic. Which of the following is the
location scrubbed traffic is forwarded to?
A. Client
B. DNS
C. Origin server
D. AAD server room
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www-file.huawei.com/-/media/corporate/pdf/trust-center/cloud-security-white-paper2017-en.pdf
(DNS)

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements about ECSs are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can view ECS resources on the console
B. You can create and delete ECSs, reinstall and change OSs, and start or stop ECSs
C. You can use public images, private images, or shared images to apply for ECSs
D. You can add and remove extension NICs, add EIPs, attach and detach disks, and create key pairs
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagementservice

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are advantages of SFS over traditional shared file storage? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Superior performance and reliability: SFS enables file system performance to increase as capacity grows, and
delivers high data durability to support rapid business growth.
B. Seamless integration: SFS supports NFS and CIFS protocols. With these standard protocols, a broad range of
mainstream applications can read data from and write data to a file system.
C. File sharing: ECSs in AZs of the same region can access the same file system concurrently and share files.
D. Easy operation and low costs: In an intuitive GUI, you can create and manage file systems with ease.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-sfs/sfs-productdesc.pdf (page 2)

QUESTION 12
WAF detects abnormalities in HTTP requests to prevent web page tampering, information leakage, and Trojan horse
implantation.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/solution/finance/ (comprehensive protection)

QUESTION 13
Traditional IT infrastructure architecture is already unable to support efficient enterprise operations. Which of the
following is not a key cause?
A. High TCO
B. Slow network rates
C. Slow service rollout and complex lifecycle management
D. I/O bottlenecks restricting application performance
Correct Answer: C


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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be used for communications between the network of an on-premises data center and a VPC
subnet? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Direct Connect
B. VPN
C. EIP
D. ELB
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/bestpractice-cc/cc_04_0004.html

QUESTION 2
Which of the following policies is suitable for increasing the number of instances in an AS group at a fixed time each
week?
A. Alarm
B. Scheduled
C. Periodic
D. All of above
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/71864455/as-group

QUESTION 3
CBR supports one-off backup and periodic backup.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-cbr/cbr_01_0002.html

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are advantages of SFS over traditional shared file storage? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Superior performance and reliability: SFS enables file system performance to increase as capacity grows, and
delivers high data durability to support rapid business growth.
B. Seamless integration: SFS supports NFS and CIFS protocols. With these standard protocols, a broad range of
mainstream applications can read data from and write data to a file system.
C. File sharing: ECSs in AZs of the same region can access the same file system concurrently and share files.
D. Easy operation and low costs: In an intuitive GUI, you can create and manage file systems with ease.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-sfs/sfs-productdesc.pdf (page 2)

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a standard image type provided on the public cloud platform and available to all users?
A. Public image
B. Private image
C. Shared image
D. Marketplace image
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagementservice

QUESTION 6
HUAWEI CLOUD sends service alarms to customers using the SMN service.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/6acab1a0/systemmanagement

QUESTION 7
Which of the following about bucket operations in OBS is false?
A. Modifying a bucket
B. Formatting a bucket
C. Creating a bucket
D. Deleting a bucket
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/usermanual-obs/en-us_topic_0045853662.html

QUESTION 8
You can batch create SFS file systems.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following services can be used with ELB? (Choose all that apply.)
A. VPC
B. AS
C. Cloud Eye
D. CTS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
When using OBS, which of the following cannot be configured for uploading objects.
A. Storage class
B. KMS encryption
C. Storage path
D. Object size
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Cloud Eye can monitor instance and bandwidth scaling in AS.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Direct Connect provides Layer 2 connections.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/usermanual-vpc/vpc_l2cg_0001.html

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a relational database service provided by HUAWEI CLOUD?
A. GaussDB (openGauss)
B. GaussDB (for PostgreSQL)
C. GaussDB (for MySQL)
D. GaussDB (for Mongo)
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.programmersought.com/article/96645022199/


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