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[High Quality Exam Dumps] CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Demo

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LX0-104 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands is used to rotate, compress, and mail system logs?
A. rotatelog
B. striplog
C. syslogd –rotate
D. logrotate
E. logger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager?
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Depending on the host\’s configuration, which of the following files can be used to turn on and off network services running on a host? LX0-104 dumps (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. /etc/profile
B. /etc/services
C. /etc/inetd.conf
D. /etc/xinetd.conf
E. /etc/host.conf
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands shows the current color depth of the X Server?
A. xcd
B. xcdepth
C. xwininfo
D. xcolordepth
E. cat /etc/X11
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is not contained in the locale setting of the operating system?
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Why should a regular user edit his personal crontab by using the command crontab instead of just editing his crontab file manually?
A. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a common database and must be extracted before editing.
B. Because crontab starts the cron daemon in case it is not running due to no other crontab entries existing.
C. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a special directory which is maintained by the cron daemon and not writable for regular users.
D. Because crontab collects information about all users crontabs and recommends similar commands used by other users of the system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a legacy program provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line?
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
After issuing:
function myfunction { echo $1 $2 ; }
in Bash, which output does:
myfunction A B C
Produce?
A. A B
B. A B C
C. A C
D. B C
E. C B A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the dig command? LX0-104 dumps
A. It can be used as a tool for querying DNS servers.
B. It can be used for searching through indexed file content.
C. It can be used to look for open ports on a system.
D. It can be used to ping all known hosts on the current subnet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In order to discover the link layer address of the device that owns a specific IPv4 or IPv6 address, which mechanism is used?
A. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use ARP.
B. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use Neighbor Discovery.
C. IPv4 uses ARP while IPv6 uses Neighbor Discovery.
D. IPv4 uses Neighbor Discovery while IPv6 uses ARP.
E. Both IPv4 and IPv6 can use either ARP or Neighbor Discovery depending on the network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Postfix
B. Procmail
C. Sendmail
D. Exim
E. SMTPd
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following commands gets the GnuPG public key with the id 63B4835B from the keyserver example.com?
A. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –recv-key 63B4835B
B. gpg –search-key hkp://[email protected]
C. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –get-key 63B4835B
D. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –add-key 63B4835B
E. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –key 63B4835B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To prevent a specific user from scheduling tasks with at, what should the administrator do?
A. Add the specific user to /etc/at.allow file.
B. Add the specific user to [deny] section in the /etc/atd.conf file.
C. Add the specific user to /etc/at.deny file.
D. Add the specific user to nojobs group.
E. Run the following: atd –deny [user].
Correct Answer: C

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CompTIA

[High Quality Exam Dumps] Useful CompTIA Security+ JK0-018 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Update (Q1-Q40)

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New CompTIA Security+ JK0-018 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following application security testing techniques is implemented when an automated system generates random input data?
A. Fuzzing
B. XSRF
C. Hardening
D. Input validation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following can be used by a security administrator to successfully recover a user’s forgotten password on a password protected file?
A. Cognitive password
B. Password sniffing
C. Brute force
D. Social engineering
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A security administrator wants to check user password complexity. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use?
A. Password history
B. Password logging
C. Password cracker
D. Password hashing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Certificates are used for: (Select TWO).
A. Client authentication.
B. WEP encryption.
C. Access control lists.
D. Code signing.
E. Password hashing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a hardware based encryption device?
A. EFS
B. TrueCrypt
C. TPM
D. SLE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?
A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C. Validating user input in web applications
D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
JK0-018 dumps Which of the following MOST interferes with network-based detection techniques?
A. Mime-encoding
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. Anonymous email accounts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A certificate authority takes which of the following actions in PKI?
A. Signs and verifies all infrastructure messages
B. Issues and signs all private keys
C. Publishes key escrow lists to CRLs
D. Issues and signs all root certificates
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Use of a smart card to authenticate remote servers remains MOST susceptible to which of the following attacks?
A. Malicious code on the local system
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Brute force certificate cracking
D. Distributed dictionary attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Separation of duties is often implemented between developers and administrators in order to separate which of the following?
A. More experienced employees from less experienced employees
B. Changes to program code and the ability to deploy to production
C. Upper level management users from standard development employees
D. The network access layer from the application access layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?
A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team.
B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process.
C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process.
D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial information. Which of the following attacks is being described?
A. Phishing
B. Tailgating
C. Pharming
D. Vishing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A user in the company is in charge of various financial roles but needs to prepare for an upcoming audit. They use the same account to access each financial system. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely be implementedwithin the company?
A. Account lockout policy
B. Account password enforcement
C. Password complexity enabled
D. Separation of duties
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A CRL is comprised oF.
A. Malicious IP addresses.
B. Trusted CA’s.
C. Untrusted private keys.
D. Public keys.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Sara, a user, downloads a keygen to install pirated software. After running the keygen, system performance is extremely slow and numerous antivirus alerts are displayed. JK0-018 dumps Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware?
A. Logic bomb
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Adware
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following may significantly reduce data loss if multiple drives fail at the same time?
A. Virtualization
B. RAID
C. Load balancing
D. Server clustering
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?
A. Management
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Operational
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic?
A. Connect the WAP to a different switch.
B. Create a voice VLAN.
C. Create a DMZ.
D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Select TWO).
A. 10.4.4.125
B. 10.4.4.158
C. 10.4.4.165
D. 10.4.4.189
E. 10.4.4.199
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which of the following algorithms has well documented collisions? (Select TWO).
A. AES
B. MD5
C. SHA
D. SHA-256
E. RSA
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET?
A. HTTPS
B. HMAC
C. GPG
D. SSH
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
An email client says a digital signature is invalid and the sender cannot be verified. The recipient is concerned with which of the following concepts?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Remediation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an effective way to ensure the BEST temperature for all equipment within a datacenter?
A. Fire suppression
B. Raised floor implementation
C. EMI shielding
D. Hot or cool aisle containment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following transportation encryption protocols should be used to ensure maximum security between a web browser and a web server? JK0-018 dumps
A. SSLv2
B. SSHv1
C. RSA
D. TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Developers currently have access to update production servers without going through an approval process. Which of the following strategies would BEST mitigate this risk?
A. Incident management
B. Clean desk policy
C. Routine audits
D. Change management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP?
A. TFTP is slower than FTP.
B. TFTP is more secure than FTP.
C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP.
D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again.
Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is characterized by an attacker attempting to map out an organization’s staff hierarchy in order to send targeted emails?
A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Privilege escalation
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to discover comprehensive security threats on a network?
A. Design reviews
B. Baseline reporting
C. Vulnerability scan
D. Code review
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is an example of a false positive?
A. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
B. A biometric iris scanner rejects an authorized user wearing a new contact lens.
C. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
D. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Data execution prevention is a feature in most operating systems intended to protect against which type of attack?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Header manipulation
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?
A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures?
A. User permission reviews
B. Mandatory vacations
C. Separation of duties
D. Job function rotation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
In which of the following scenarios is PKI LEAST hardened?
A. The CRL is posted to a publicly accessible location.
B. The recorded time offsets are developed with symmetric keys.
C. A malicious CA certificate is loaded on all the clients.
D. All public keys are accessed by an unauthorized user.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application’s security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
A security administrator has just finished creating a hot site for the company. JK0-018 dumps This implementation relates to which of the following concepts?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Succession planning
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
In the initial stages of an incident response, Matt, the security administrator, was provided the hard drives in question from the incident manager. Which of the following incident response procedures would he need to perform in order to begin
the analysis? (Select TWO).
A. Take hashes
B. Begin the chain of custody paperwork
C. Take screen shots
D. Capture the system image
E. Decompile suspicious files
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 40
Which of the following is used to certify intermediate authorities in a large PKI deployment?
A. Root CA
B. Recovery agent
C. Root user
D. Key escrow
Correct Answer: A

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CompTIA

[High Quality Exam Dumps] The Best CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Questions Update Youtube Demo

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New CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering
C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router.
Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by the computer with IP 10.2.2.10.
DIAGRAM
PC1 PC2
[192.168.1.30]——–[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]———[10.2.2.10] LOGS
10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN
10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK
10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following can be inferred about the above environment?
A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server.
B. The web server listens on a non-standard port.
C. The router filters port 80 traffic.
D. The router implements NAT.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?
A. NIPS
B. HIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has tasked The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to develop and update all Internal Operating Procedures and Standard Operating Procedures documentation in order to successfully respond to future incidents. Which of the following stages of the Incident Handling process is the team working on?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Eradication
C. Recovery
D. Preparation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Used in conjunction, which of the following are PII? (Select TWO).
A. Marital status
B. Favorite movie
C. Pet’s name
D. Birthday
E. Full name
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
A victim is logged onto a popular home router forum site in order to troubleshoot some router configuration issues. The router is a fairly standard configuration and has an IP address of 192.168.1.1. The victim is logged into their router administrative interface in one tab and clicks a forum link in another tab. Due to clicking the forum link, the home router reboots. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?
A. Brute force password attack
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A recent spike in virus detections has been attributed to end-users visiting www.compnay.com. The business has an established relationship with an organization using the URL of www.company.com but not with the site that has been causing the infections. Which of the following would BEST describe this type of attack?
A. Typo squatting
B. Session hijacking
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
A database administrator receives a call on an outside telephone line from a person who states that they work for a well-known database vendor. The caller states there have been problems applying the newly released vulnerability patch for their database system, and asks what version is being used so that they can assist. Which of the following is the BEST action for the administrator to take?
A. Thank the caller, report the contact to the manager, and contact the vendor support line to verify any reported patch issues.
B. Obtain the vendor’s email and phone number and call them back after identifying the number of systems affected by the patch.
C. Give the caller the database version and patch level so that they can receive help applying the patch.
D. Call the police to report the contact about the database systems, and then check system logs for attack attempts.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An IT security technician is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company. SY0-401 dumps
Which of the following is an application security technique that can be used to identify unknown weaknesses within the code?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Denial of service
C. Fuzzing
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
The systems administrator wishes to implement a hardware-based encryption method that could also be used to sign code. They can achieve this by:
A. Utilizing the already present TPM.
B. Configuring secure application sandboxes.
C. Enforcing whole disk encryption.
D. Moving data and applications into the cloud.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to play games and utilize instant messaging. Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue?
A. Device encryption
B. Application control
C. Content filtering
D. Screen-locks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of a tracking cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is the BEST reason for placing a password lock on a mobile device?
A. Prevents an unauthorized user from accessing owner’s data
B. Enables remote wipe capabilities
C. Stops an unauthorized user from using the device again
D. Prevents an unauthorized user from making phone calls
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is an XML based open standard used in the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Several employee accounts appear to have been cracked by an attacker. Which of the following should the security administrator implement to mitigate password cracking attacks? (Select TWO).
A. Increase password complexity
B. Deploy an IDS to capture suspicious logins
C. Implement password history
D. Implement monitoring of logins
E. Implement password expiration
F. Increase password length
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 22
To ensure compatibility with their flagship product, the security engineer is tasked to recommend an encryption cipher that will be compatible with the majority of third party software and hardware vendors.
Which of the following should be recommended?
A. SHA
B. MD5
C. Blowfish
D. AES
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
While setting up a secure wireless corporate network, which of the following should Pete, an administrator, avoid implementing?
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. WEP
D. WPA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which of the following protocols uses an asymmetric key to open a session and then establishes a symmetric key for the remainder of the session?
A. SFTP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
The IT department has installed new wireless access points but discovers that the signal extends far into the parking lot. Which of the following actions should be taken to correct this?
A. Disable the SSID broadcasting
B. Configure the access points so that MAC filtering is not used
C. Implement WEP encryption on the access points
D. Lower the power for office coverage only
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
A risk assessment team is concerned about hosting data with a cloud service provider (CSP) which of the following findings would justify this concern?
A. The CPS utilizes encryption for data at rest and in motion
B. The CSP takes into account multinational privacy concerns
C. The financial review indicates the company is a startup
D. SLA state service tickets will be resolved in less than 15 minutes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A computer on a company network was infected with a zero-day exploit after an employee accidently opened an email that contained malicious content. The employee recognized the email as malicious and was attempting to delete it, but accidently opened it. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following should be done to prevent this scenario from occurring again in the future?
A. Install host-based firewalls on all computers that have an email client installed
B. Set the email program default to open messages in plain text
C. Install end-point protection on all computers that access web email
D. Create new email spam filters to delete all messages from that sender
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
A small IT security form has an internal network composed of laptops, servers, and printers. The network has both wired and wireless segments and supports VPN access from remote sites. To protect the network from internal and external threats, including social engineering attacks, the company decides to implement stringent security controls. Which of the following lists is the BEST combination of security controls to implement?
A. Disable SSID broadcast, require full disk encryption on servers, laptop, and personally owned electronic devices, enable MAC filtering on WAPs, require photographic ID to enter the building.
B. Enable port security; divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; apply ACLs to all network equipment; enable MAC filtering on WAPs; and require two-factor authentication for network access.
C. Divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; require the use of one time pads for network key exchange and access; enable MAC filtering ACLs on all servers.
D. Enable SSID broadcast on a honeynet; install monitoring software on all corporate equipment’ install CCTVs to deter social engineering; enable SE Linux in permissive mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A security guard has informed the Chief information Security Officer that a person with a tablet has been walking around the building. The guard also noticed strange white markings in different areas of the parking lot. The person is attempting which of the following types of attacks?
A. Jamming
B. War chalking
C. Packet sniffing
D. Near field communication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A security Operations Center was scanning a subnet for infections and found a contaminated machine.
One of the administrators disabled the switch port that the machine was connected to, and informed a local technician of the infection. Which of the following steps did the administrator perform?
A. Escalation
B. Identification
C. Notification
D. Quarantine
E. Preparation
Correct Answer: CD

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Citrix

[High Quality Exam Dumps] 100% Pass Latest Citrix 1Y0-A19 Dumps PDF Files And VCE Youtube Demo Update

admin May 14, 2020 0 Comments

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Vendor: Citrix
Exam Name: Citrix XenDesktop 5 Basic Administration
Exam Code: 1Y0-A19
Version: Demo
Total Questions: 90 Q&As
1Y0-A19 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator configured the automatic disk image update feature, but has since noticed that changes to vDisks are not being replicated automatically. What could be a reason for this behavior?
A. The vDisk assigned to the target devices are in private image mode.
B. The target devices need to be reconfigured to point to the new vDisk files.
C. The target device has NOT restarted since the changes were applied to the vDisk.
D. There is more than one vDisk from the same Provisioning services host with the same Class.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
In Desktop Director, which filter shows an administrator the number of end users connected to a certain desktop group within a XenDesktop environment?
A. View All within the machine panel
B. View the desktop group in the usage panel
C. View connections in the infrastructure panel
D. View real time data in the desktop group details panel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which administrative role can manage catalogs and build virtual desktops?
A. Machine administrator
B. Help desk administrator
C. Read-only administrator
D. Desktop group administrator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two components must an administrator install on a master image that will be used for streamed machines? (Choose two.)
A. Receiver
B. Online plug-in
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two components does Citrix recommend an administrator install on a master image for optimal application access? 1Y0-A19 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Online plug-in
B. Offline plug-in
C. EdgeSight agent
D. provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two tools can an administrator use to modify policy settings in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Desktop Studio
B. System Registry
C. Desktop Director
D. Group Policy Editor
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a catalog. Provisioning services-based virtual machines will be imported into the catalog. Which machine type must the administrator select when creating the catalog?
A. Pooled
B. Existing
C. Streamed
D. Dedicated
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two terns are needed for an administrator to create a catalog for existing machines in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines available in the datacenter
B. Active Directory computer accounts for the machines
C. Device collections configured to load the vDisk over the network
D. A PrtMs.on.ng services deployment with a vDisk imaged from the master target device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which policy takes precedence when a Citrix policy contradicts an Active Directory GPO policy?
A. The Citrix policy
B. The higher priority policy
C. The most restrictive policy
D. The Active Directory GPO policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
How can an administrator reallocate an assigned virtual desktop to a new employee? 1Y0-A19 dumps
A. Edit the desktop group, go to the users page and add the new employee.
B. Search for the desktop in Desktop Director, edit the desktop and add the new employee.
C. Select the appropriate catalog, find the machine in the catalog and add the new employee.
D. Find the appropriate desktop in the desktop group, click on `Change user’ and add the new employee.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An administrator was informed by multiple users who access desktops in a desktop group that the time on the desktops is incorrect. How can the administrator fix the time on the desktops?
A. Edit the desktop group and change the time zone in ‘Edit user settings’
B. Put the desktops in maintenance mode and then change the time zone on each desktop.
C. Edit the catalog that was used to create the desktop group with the correct time for the desktops.
D. Put the vDisk image used by the desktops in Private image mode then change the time on the image.
Correct Answer: A

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Oracle

[High Quality Exam Dumps] The Best Oracle 1Z0-068 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Youtube Demo

admin May 14, 2020 0 Comments

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database 12c
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: RAC and Grid Infrastructure Administration
Exam Code: 1Z0-068
Total Questions: 157 Q&As
1Z0-068 dumps
QUESTION 1
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are automatically terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?
A. Setting a metric threshold
B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed. 1Z0-068 dumps
Which three statements are true about the advisor given by the segment advisor?
A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
B. It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary managed tablespaces it the no chained rows.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E. It may advise the use of segment shrink for free list managed tables.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 3
You want to flash back a test database by five hours.
You issue this command:
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP (SYSDATE – 5/24);
Which two statements are true about this flashback scenario?
A. The database must have multiplexed redo logs for the flashback to succeed.
B. The database must be MOUNTED for the flashback to succeed.
C. The database must use block change tracking for the flashback to succeed.
D. The database must be opened in restricted mode for the flashback to succeed.
E. The database must be opened with the RESETLOGS option after the flashback is complete.
F. The database must be opened in read-only mode to check if the database has been flashed back to the correct SCN.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
Which three resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases when creating a multitenant container database plan (CDB plan) using Oracle Database Resource Manager?
A. Maximum Undo per consumer group
B. Maximum Idle time
C. Parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. Exadata I/O
F. Local file system I/O
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privilege.The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode.
There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and PDBs.
What happens alter issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?
A. The shutdown proceeds immediately. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs are either committed or rolled hack.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
C. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either committed or rolled back.
D. The statement results in an error because there are open PDBs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, 1Z0-068 dumps you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:

After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)?
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E. The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 9
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?
A. Compare Period ADDM report
B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job’s elapsed time?
A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job’s job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database? 1Z0-068 dumps
A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed frequently with queries that span multiple partitions.
The table has a local prefixed, range partitioned index.
Some of these queries access very few rows in some partitions and all the rows in other partitions, but these queries still perform a full scan for all accessed partitions.
This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the start of a month. You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are accessed from a segment, while still allowing full scans for segments where many rows are returned.
Which three methods could transparently help to achieve this result?
A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
D. Converting the partitioned table to a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the monthly tables, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
F. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
Correct Answer: BCE

Watch the video to learn more: https://youtu.be/0zESt4NW8MQ

CCNP Data Center Cisco

Best way to pass the Cisco 300-175 exam – 100% free

admin February 29, 2020 0 Comments

What is the best way to pass the Cisco 300-175 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Cisco expert.) You can get free Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.leads4pass.com/300-175.html (416 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 google drive
Effective Cisco 300-175 exam practice questions
Related 300-175 Popular Exam resources
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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 google drive

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300-175 DCUCI – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcuci.html

This tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing data center technologies including:

Unified computing
Unified computing maintenance and operations
Automation
Unified computing security
Unified computing storage

Latest updates Cisco 300-175 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which three AAA protocols are supported for communication with external AAA providers? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. AD
D. LDAP
E. ACS
F. 802.1X
Correct Answer: ABD
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/
UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_95086D8A9B594FD29A3BD8AF5D2DA1
FC Cisco UCS supports two methods to authenticate user logins:
Through user accounts local to Cisco UCS Manager
Remotely through one of the following protocols:
LDAP
RADIUS
TACACS+

QUESTION 2
This question concerns provisioning a workload on a Cisco UCS System. Drag the options on the left to the right side in
the correct order.
Select and Place: lead4pass 300-175 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q2-1

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the ESXi installation on a Cisco UCS C-Series server is true? lead4pass 300-175 exam question q3

A. The ESXi is installed on a local drive and the SATA drive is selected as the first boot option.
B. The ESXi is installed on a local RAID array and the local RAID group is selected as the first boot option.
C. During the ESXi installation process, on a local RAID you must select the local RAID group
D. During the ESXi installation process, you must select the location of the ESXi image file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Drag Drop
The Cisco Integrated Management Controller on a Cisco Unified Computing B-Series server provides a number of
features. Drag the functionality on the left to the appropriate feature on the right.
Select and Place: lead4pass 300-175 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q4-1

QUESTION 5
Which item represents a secure method of transmitting fault data with Cisco Call Home?
A. IPsec
B. SSL email
C. secure XML
D. Cisco Transport Gateway
E. RSA Digital Certificate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Drag Drop
This questions concern the replacement of copper twinax SFP+transceiver with an optical SFP+transceiver on a Cisco
Unified Computing System blade server.
Drag the options on the left to the right side in the correct order when performing the replacement. Note: Not all of the
options on the left will be used.
Select and Place: lead4pass 300-175 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q6-1

QUESTION 7
You have a Cisco UCS C-Series Server. What can you use to log the blade server statistics?
A. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller log
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. the XML API
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-c-series-rack-servers/datasheet-c78-733571.html

QUESTION 8
You need to enable Cisco UCS Manager to support out-of-band IPv4 address access to the Cisco UCS KVM Direct
launch page from a web browser. What should you enable?
A. SMASH CLP
B. CIM XML
C. SNMP
D. CIMC Web Service
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/Admin-Management/3-1/b
_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1_chapter_0110.html -Cisco UCS
Manager supports out-of-band IPv4 address access to the Cisco UCS KVM Direct launch page from a web browser. To
provide this access, you must enable the following service: CIMC Web Service https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/3-0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0_chapte
r_0100111.pdf

QUESTION 9
You need to implement a Cisco UCS system at a customer site.
Which adapters and operating systems have preprovisioned adapter policies?
A. Ethernet vNICs and Windows. OS X Server, and Oracle Solaris operating systems
B. Fibre Channel vNICs and Windows, FreeBSD, and Linux operating systems
C. Ethernet vNICs and Windows, VMware, and Linux operating systems
D. Fibre Channel vNICs and Windows, Oracle Solaris, and Linux operating systems
Correct Answer: A
http://www.educationalcentre.co.uk/deploy-a-cisco-ucs-system-part-2-from-scratch-for-vmware-esxi/ https://www.cisco.c
om/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_
GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapter_010101.html#d71329e928a1635 lead4pass 300-175 exam question q9

Fibre Channel are not vNICs. They are vHBAs.
Ethernet are vNICs.
OSX Server is not a predefined policy.

QUESTION 10
The Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects offer a new feature that allows dynamic port allocation for all of the 10
Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. What are these ports called?
A. universal ports
B. flex ports
C. unified ports
D. converged ports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Drag Drop
Drag the characteristic on the left to the most appropriate Cisco unified Computing System 62XX Fibre Channel
switching mode on the right.
Select and Place: lead4pass 300-175 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q11-1

QUESTION 12
Before upgrading a Cisco UCS cluster, you need to verify the high-availability status and roles of the cluster. In which
scenario can you successfully perform the upgrade?
A. When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, the Ready field value is Ready and the State field value is On When
you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLl, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both ON and the cluster
state is HA WAITING.
B. When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, the Ready field value is Yes and the State field value is Up. When
you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLl, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both UP and the cluster state
is HA READY.
C. When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, the Ready field value is Ready and the State field value is Active.
When you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLI, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both READY and the
cluster stale is HA WAITING.
D. When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI. the Ready field value is Ready and the State field value is Up. When
you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLI, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both UP and the cluster stale
is HA UP.
Correct Answer: B
When you check the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, the Ready field value is Yes and the State field value is Up.
When you check the Cisco UCS Manager CLl, the Primary and Secondary interconnect state are both UP and the
cluster state is HA READY. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware-mgmt/gui/2-2/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22_chapter_011.pdf lead4pass 300-175 exam question q12

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/CLI-User-Guides/Firmware-Mgmt/3-1/b_UCSM_CLI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1/b_UCSM_GUI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1_chapter_010.html#task_F5AC1A117B4F499D9DCFC221E2BC20AB

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect. You associate a blade server to a service
profile that has the Testing boot policy. Which statement describes the result of the configuration? lead4pass 300-175 exam question q13

A. The iSCSI boot was created for the LAN boot policy.
B. The blade server fails to boot due to a missing configuration line of set order 0.
C. The blade server first tries to boot by using vHBA3 across the SAN network.
D. The blade server first tries to boot from the local storage, and if this fails, it boots from vHBA3.
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/configuring_server_boot.pdf

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MCSA Microsoft

Best way to pass the Microsoft 70-742 exam – 100% free

admin November 6, 2019 0 Comments

What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 70-742 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft MCSA 70-742 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.leads4pass.com/70-742.html (280 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

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Latest Microsoft MCSA 70-742 google drive
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Exam 70-742: Identity with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-742.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) (20-25%)
Manage and Maintain AD DS (15-20%)
Create and Manage Group Policy (25-30%)
Implement Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) (10-15%)
Implement Identity Federation and Access Solutions (15-20%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam manage identities using the functionalities in Windows Server 2016. Candidates install, configure, manage, and maintain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) as well as implement Group Policy Objects (GPOs).

Candidates should also be familiar with implementing and managing Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS), Active Directory Federations Services (AD FS), Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS), and Web Application proxy.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-742 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as an Active Directory Rights
Management Services (AD RMS) server for the domain.
You need to install the Identity Federation Support role service on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. Run the Install–WindowsFeature NET–Franework
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a single site named Site1.
All computers are in Site1.
The Group Policy objects (GPOs) for the domain are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) lead4pass 70-742 exam question q2

The relevant users and client computer in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q2-1

End of repeated scenario.
You are evaluating what will occur when you set user Group Policy loopback processing mode to Replace in A4.
Which GPO or GPOs will apply to User2 when the user signs in to Computer1 after loopback processing is configured?
A. A1, A5, A6 and A4
B. A3, A1, A4, and A7
C. A3, A1, A5 and A4
D. A4 only
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
You have a certificate template named UserAutoEnroll that is based on the User certificate template. Domain users are
configured to autoenroll for UserAutoEnroll. A user named User1 has an email address defined in Active Directory. A
user
named User2 does not have an email address defined in Active Directory.
You discover that User1 was issued a certificate based on UserAutoEnroll template automatically.
A request by user2 for a certificate based on the UserAutoEnroll template fails.
You need to ensure that all users can autoenroll for certificated based on the UserAutoEnroll template.
Which setting should you configure from the properties on the UserAutoEnroll certificate template?
A. Issuance Requirements
B. Request Handling
C. Cryptography
D. Subject Name
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains 10 domains. The root domain
contains a global catalog server named DC1.
You remove the global catalog server role from DC1.
You need to decrease the size of the Active Directory database on DC1.
Solution: You restart DC1 in Directory Services Repair Mode. You run compact.exe, and then restart DC1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You need to run ntdsutil.exe with the `compact to\\’ option.
References: https://theitbros.com/active-directory-database-compact-defrag/

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration. lead4pass 70-742 exam question q5

You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com
namespace.
Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you add a rule to the Name Resolution Policy Table
(NRPT).
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The NRPT stores configurations and settings that are used to deploy DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC), and also
stores information related to DirectAccess, a remote access technology. Note: The Name Resolution Policy Table
(NRPT) is a new feature available in Windows Server 2008 R2. The NRPT is a table that contains rules you can
configure to specify DNS settings or special behavior for names or namespaces. When performing DNS name
resolution, the DNS Client service checks the NRPT before sending a DNS query. If a DNS query or response matches
an entry in the NRPT, it is handled according to settings in the policy. Queries and responses that do not match an
NRPT entry are processed normally.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee649207(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has Microsoft System Center 2016 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) installed.
Server2 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed.
You create a domain user named User1.
You need to integrate IPAM and VMM. VMM must use the account of User1 to manage IPAM. The solution must use
the principle of least privilege.
What should you do on each server? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-742 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q6-1

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn783349(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC1.
You need to retrieve a list of accounts that have their password cached on RODC1.
Which command should you run?
A. repadmin.exe
B. ntdsutil.exe
C. dcdiag.exe
D. netdom.exe
Correct Answer: A
To list the user and computer accounts for the passwords that are cached on the RODC, run the following command:
repadmin /prp view reveal
References https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/2028962/the-active-directory-users-and-computers-mmc-snap-in-does-not-list-all

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.
You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.
Solution: From the Computer Configuration node of GPO1, you configure the Local Users and Groups preference.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
to add uses to the Local Administrator built In group on all the computers using Group Policy, open group policy editor
and create or edit existing GPO. Go to User Configuration -> Preferences -> Control Panel Settings -> Local users and
groups.
References: https://www.ntweekly.com/2015/01/10/how-to-add-users-to-local-admin-group-using-group-policy-windows-server-2012/

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You open Group Policy Management as shown in the Group Policy Management exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.) lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9

A user named User1 is in OU1. A computer named Computer2 is in OU2.
The settings of GPO1 are configured as shown in the GPO1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-1

The settings of GPO2 are configured as shown in the GPO2 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-4

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an administrative
workstation named WKS1 that runs Windows 10.
You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.
You download a custom administrative template that contains the following files:
App1.admx App1.adml You need to ensure that you can configure GPO1 by using the settings in the new administrative
template.
To where should you copy each file? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-742 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q10-1

QUESTION 11
Your company has an office in Montreal. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have an organizational unit (OU) named Montreal that contains all of the users accounts for the users in the
Montreal office. An office manager in the Montreal office knows each user personally.
You need to ensure that the office manager can provide the users with a new password if the users forget their
password.
What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Montreal OU. Assign the office manager the Apply
Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of the GPO.
B. From the Security settings of each user account in the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Change
Password permission.
C. From the Security settings of the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Reset Password permission.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the OU of the domain. Filter the GPO to the Montreal users.
Assign the office manager the Apply Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of
the GPO.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You need to view a list of all the domain user accounts that are enabled. But whose users have not signed in during the
last 30 days.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-ADDomainController –Discover –Service 2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
This command gets a global catalog in the current forest using Discovery.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/addsadministration/get-addomaincontroller?view=win10-ps

Related 70-742 Popular Exam resources

title	pdf	youtube	Microsoft	lead4pass	Lead4Pass Total Questions
Microsoft MCSA	lead4pass 70-742 dumps pdf	lead4pass 70-742 youtube	Exam 70-742: Identity with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft	https://www.leads4pass.com/70-742.html	280 Q&A
	lead4pass 70-740 dumps pdf	lead4pass 70-740youtube	Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016	https://www.leads4pass.com/70-740.html	337 Q&A
	lead4pass 70-741 dumps pdf	lead4pass 70-741 youtube	Exam 70-741: Networking with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft	https://www.leads4pass.com/70-741.html	259 Q&A
	lead4pass 70-743 dumps pdf	lead4pass 70-743 youtube	Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016	https://www.leads4pass.com/70-743.html	267 Q&A

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MCSA Microsoft

Best way to pass the Microsoft 70-741 exam – 100% free

admin November 6, 2019 0 Comments

What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 70-741 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft MCSA 70-741 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.leads4pass.com/70-741.html (259 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

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Latest Microsoft MCSA 70-741 google drive
Effective Microsoft 70-741 exam practice questions
Related 70-741 Popular Exam resources
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Exam 70-741: Networking with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-741.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Implement Domain Name System (DNS) (15-20%)
Implement DHCP and IPAM (25-30%)
Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions (20-25%)
Implement Core and Distributed Network Solutions (15-20%)
Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure (15-20%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam perform tasks related to the networking features and functionalities available in Windows Server 2016. Candidates should have familiarity with implementing and managing DNS, DHCP, and IPAM, as well as deploying remote access solutions such as VPN and RADIUS.

Candidates should also have experience managing DFS and branch cache solutions, configuring high-performance network features and
functionality, and implementing Software Defined Networking (SDN) solutions such as Hyper-V Network Virtualization (HNV) and Network Controller.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-741 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a DirectAccess Server that is accessible by using the name directaccess.fabrikam.com On the DirectAccess
server, you install a new server certificate that has a subject name of directaccess.contoso.com, and then you configure
DNS records for directaccess.contoso.com You need to change the endpoint name for DirectAccess to
directaccess.contoso.com What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-741 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-741 exam question q1-1

QUESTION 2
You have an IP Address Management (IPAM) server named IPAM1 that runs Window Server 2016. IPAM1 manages all
of the DHCP servers on your network.
You are troubleshooting an issue for a client that fails to receive an IP address from DHCP.
You need to ensure that from IPAM1, you can view all of the event data for the DHCP leases from the last 24 hours.
Solution: From Server Manager, you run Retrieve Event Catalog Data.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: http://www.techblogopedia.com/blog/ip-address-managementipam-windows-server-2012-r2-part-3/

QUESTION 3
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has the DNS Server role installed. The advanced DNS properties for Server1 are shown in the Advanced DNS
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Server2 is configured to use Server1 as a DNS server. Server2 has the following IP configuration. lead4pass 70-741 exam question q3

Select the appropriate selection if statement is “Yes” or No.
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-741 exam question q3-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-741 exam question q3-3

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration. lead4pass 70-741 exam question q4

You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com
namespace.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Add-DnsServertrustAnchor cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
The Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor command adds a trust anchor to a DNS server. A trust anchor (or trust “point”) is a
public cryptographic key for a signed zone. Trust anchors must be configured on every non- authoritative DNS server
that will
attempt to validate DNS data. Trust Anchors have no direct relation to DSSEC validation.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj649932.aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn593672(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a certification authority (CA) and a Network
Policy Server (NPS) server.
You plan to deploy Remote Access Always On VPN.
Which authentication method should you use?
A. Microsoft: EAP-TTLS
B. Microsoft: Secured password
C. Microsoft: Protected EAP
D. Microsoft: EAP-AKA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a DNS server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has an Active Directory-integrated
zone named adatum.com.
All client computers run Windows 10.
You recently encountered unexpected responses to DNS client queries in the adatum.corn zone.
You need to log all the records written to the zone.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-DnsServerDsSetting
B. Set-DnsServerDiagnostics
C. Set-DnsServer
D. Add-DnaServerQueryResolutionPolicy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named
contoso.com and litwareinc.com.
Your company recently deployed DirectAccess for the members of a group named DA_Computers. All client computers
are members of DA_Computers.
You discover that DirectAccess clients can access the resources located in the contoso.com domain only. The clients
can access the resources in the litwareinc.com domain by using an L2TP VPN connection to the network.
You need to ensure that the DirectAccess clients can access the resources in the litwareinc.com domain.
What should you do?
A. From a Group Policy object (GPO), modify the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT).
B. From the properties of the servers in litwareinc.com, configure the delegation settings.
C. On an external DNS server, create a zone delegation for litwareinc.com.
D. Add the servers in litwareinc.com to the RAS and IAS Servers group.
Correct Answer: A
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/tomshinder/2010/04/01/directaccess-client-location-awareness-nrpt-name-resolution/

QUESTION 8
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Both servers have the DHCP Server
server role installed.
Server1 has a DHCP scope named Scope1. Server2 has a DHCP scope named Scope2.
You need to ensure that client computers can get an IP address if a single DHCP server fails. You must be able to
control the percentage of requests to which each DHCP server responds during normal network operations.
What should you do?
A. Add Server1 and Server2 as nodes in a failover cluster, and then configure the DHCP Server server role.
B. Add Server1 and Server2 as nodes in a failover cluster, and then configure the quorum mode.
C. On Server1 and Server2, configure DHCP failover for Scope1 and Scope2.
D. Add Server1 and Server2 as nodes in a failover cluster, and then configure port rules for UDP 67 and UDP 68.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have an IP Address Management (IPAM) server named IPAM1 that runs Window Server 2016. IPAM1 manages all
of the DHCP servers on your network.
You are troubleshooting an issue for a client that fails to receive an IP address from DHCP. You need to ensure that
from IPAM1, you can view all of the event data for the DHCP leases from the last 24 hours.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run the Set-IpamDHCPServer cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are configuring internal virtual networks to support multitenancy communication between tenant virtual machine
networks and remote sites.
You have a tenant named Tenant1.
You need to enable Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) for Tenant1.
Which commands should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-741 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-741 exam question q10-1

QUESTION 11
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two network adaptors named
NK1 and NIC2. Server2 has two virtual switches named vSwitch1 and vSwitch2. N1C1 connects to vSwitch1. NIC2
connects to vSwitch2
Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has two network adapters named vmNIC1 and vmNIC1. VmNIC1
connects to vSwitch1. VmNIC2 connects to vSwitch2.
You need to create a NIC team on VM1.
What should you run on VM1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-741 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-741 exam question q11-1

Name NICTEAM1 TeamMembers vmNIC1, vmNIC2 –TeamingMode $var1 –LoadBalancingAlgorithm $var2

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and has the DNS Server role installed. Automatic scavenging of state records
is
enabled and the scavenging period is set to 10 days.
All client computers dynamically register their names in the contoso.com DNS zone on Server1.
You discover that the names of multiple client computers that were removed from the network several weeks ago can
still be resolved.
You need to configure Server1 to automatically remove the records of the client computers that have been offline for
more than 10 days.
Solution: You set the Expires after value of the zone.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc772069(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft Azure subscription and an on-premises network.
To the on-premises network, you deploy a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. In Azure, you
configure a virtual gateway on an Azure virtual network.
You need to ensure that the computers on the on-premises network can access virtual machines on the Azure virtual
network.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Install the Remote Access server role. From the Routing and Remote Access Server Setup Wizard, select Secure
connection between two private networks.
B. Install the Data Center Bridging (DCB) feature, and then run the Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet.
C. Install the Remote Access server role. From the Routing and Remote Access Server Setup Wizard, select Virtual
private network (VPN) access and NAT.
D. Install the Data Center Bridging (DCB) feature, and then run the Enable-RemoteAccessRoutingDomain cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

Related 70-741 Popular Exam resources

title	pdf	youtube	Microsoft	lead4pass	Lead4Pass Total Questions
Microsoft MCSA	lead4pass 70-741 dumps pdf	lead4pass 70-741 youtube	Exam 70-741: Networking with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft	https://www.leads4pass.com/70-741.html	259 Q&A
	lead4pass 70-740 dumps pdf	lead4pass 70-740youtube	Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016	https://www.leads4pass.com/70-740.html	337 Q&A
	lead4pass 70-742 dumps pdf	lead4pass 70-742 youtube	Exam 70-742: Identity with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft	https://www.leads4pass.com/70-742.html	280 Q&A
	lead4pass 70-743 dumps pdf	lead4pass 70-743 youtube	Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016	https://www.leads4pass.com/70-743.html	267 Q&A

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Exampdfdownload shares online exam exercise questions all year round! Cisco CCDP 300-320 exam “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH)” https://www.leads4pass.com/300-320.html (685 Q&As). Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco 300-320 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!

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Cisco CCDP 300-320 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which two characteristics of MSDP when designing an interdomain multicast network are true? (Choose two.)
A. MSDP is a mechanism that allows RPs to share information about active sources.
B. Any network utilizing iBGP or eBGP can use MSDP.
C. In the PIM-SM model, multicast sources and receivers must register with their local RP.
D. RPs in other domains have full knowledge of sources located in other domains.
E. The MSDP speaker periodically sends SAs that include all sources in all discovered domains.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/Phase_1/mcstmsdp/mcst_p1.html

QUESTION 2
What is advantage of using the vPC feature in Data Centre environment?
A. Two switches form a single control plane
B. Utilizes all available uplinks bandwidth
C. FHRP is not required
D. A single IP is used for management for both devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Port Security supports which type of port?
A. IEEE 802.1Q tunnel port
B. Dynamic trunk
C. Port-channel
D. Routed port
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A Consultant has been tasked with QoS design. The customer has specified that for the application end-to-end
bandwidth has to be specified. With what can you accomplish this?
A. IntServ with RSVP
B. DiffServ
C. CoS markings
D. DSCP markings
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A company have single ASA hardware box and they need to separate company departments in way that they can apply
different rules on them, ACL, NAT, and so on… Which mode is needed?
A. routed mode
B. transparent mode
C. multiple context mode
D. active failover mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Uplink floating state ( up and down ) .what you can do to solve this problem ?
A. route summary
B. Cisco Express Forwarding
C. BFD
D. UDLD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
There\\’s a requirement to separate networks within an organization. What technology can be used while preserving
hardware?
A. Virtual Context B. VRF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two options regarding the Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tag are true? (Choose two)
A. It is assigned by the Cisco ISE to the user or endpoint session upon login
B. Best practice dictates it should be statically created on the switch
C. It is removed by the Cisco ISE before reaching the endpoint.
D. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a guest group allowing access to minimal services
E. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a security group for common services such as DNS and
DHCP
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which one is IETF standared
A. Cisco Fabric Path
B. Data Center Bridging
C. CUS
D. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
Correct Answer: D
The Data Center Bridging (DCB) architecture is based on a collection of open standards Ethernet extensions developed
through the IEEE 802.1 working group to improve and expand Ethernet networking and management capabilities in the
data center.
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/ieee-802-1-data-centerbridging/at_a_glance_c45-460907.pdf TRILL
(“Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links”) is an IETF Standard[1] implemented by devicescalled RBridges (routing
bridges) or TRILL Switches.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TRILL_(computing)

QUESTION 10
Given the addresses 10.10.16.0/24 and 10.10.23.0/24, which option is the best summary?
A. 10.10.0.0/16
B. 10.10.8.0/23
C. 10.10.16.0/23
D. 10.10.16.0/21
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
In which multicast configuration is MSDP most useful?
A. Interdomain IPv4 PIM sparse-Mode
B. Interdomain IPv4 PIM dense-Mode
C. Intra-domain IPv4 PIM dense-Mode
D. Intra-domain IPv4 PIM sparse-Mode
Correct Answer: A
“Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) is a Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) family multicast routing protocol
defined by Experimental RFC 3618.
MSDP interconnects multiple IPv4 PIM Sparse-Mode
(PIM-SM) domains which enables PIM-SM to have Rendezvous Point (RP) redundancy and inter-domain multicasting
RFC 4611″

QUESTION 12
When 2 distribution switches are configured for VSS, what needs to be done to extend back plane connectivity? (E)
A. ISL
B. VSL
C. VSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about 802.1X are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can allow and deny port access based on device identity.
B. It is a Cisco proprietary standard.
C. It works only with wired devices.
D. By default, it allows devices that lack 802.1 support.
E. It can allow and deny port access based on user identity.
Correct Answer: AE

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Exam 70-413: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-413.aspx

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You need to configure the replication of user credentials for the Great Britain division.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: lead4pass 70-413 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-413 exam question q1-1

QUESTION 2
A company has offices in multiple geographic locations. The sites have high-latency, low- bandwidth connections. You
need to implement a multisite Windows Deployment Services (WDS) topology for deploying standard client device
images
to all sites.
Solution: At each site, you install a WDS Server. You apply the same configuration settings to each WDS Server. You
configure Distributed File Server Replication (DFSR) to synchronize install images.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: DFS Replication is compatible with Remote Installation Services (RIS) and WDS.
Reference: DFS Replication: Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc773238(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 3
On Server2, you create a Run As Account named Account1. Account1 is associated to an Active Directory account
named VMMIPAM.
You need to implement an IPAM solution.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate configuration for each server in the answer area.
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-413 exam question q3

Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-413 exam question q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-413 exam question q3-2

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution for the remote access servers. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network address translation (NAT)
B. Logging levels
C. Packet filtering
D. Packet tracing
Correct Answer: A
*
Scenario: The remote access servers must be able to restrict outgoing traffic based on IP addresses.
*
Network address translation (NAT) allows you to share a connection to the public Internet through a single interface
with a single public IP address. The computers on the private network use private, non-routable addresses. NAT maps
the private addresses to the public address.

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System
Center 2012 infrastructure.
You deploy a second System Center 2012 infrastructure in a test environment. You create a service template named
Template1 in both System Center 2012 infrastructures.
For self-service users, you create a service offering for Template1. The users create 20 instances of Template1.
You modify Template1 in the test environment. You export the service template to a file named Template1.xml.
You need to ensure that the changes to Template1 can be applied to the existing instances in the production
environment.
What should you do when you import the template?
A. Overwrite the current service template.
B. Change the name of the service template.
C. Create a new service template.
D. Change the release number of the service template.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You deploy an Active Directory domain named contoso.com to the network. The domain is configured as an Active
Directory-integrated zone. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 and are DNS servers.
You plan to deploy a child domain named operations.contoso.com.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS infrastructure to ensure that users in the operations department can
access the servers in the contoso.com domain.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A zone delegation for _msdcs.contoso.com
B. Changes to the replication scope of contoso.com
C. Changes to the replication scope of _msdcs.contoso.com
D. Changes to the replication scope of operations.contoso.com
Correct Answer: B
The contoso.com resources must be available from the subdomain operations.contoso.com. The contoso.com
replication scope must include operations.contoso.com.
Incorrect:
Not A: Zone delegation relates to which users can handle the administration of a subdomain, but the question is related
to access of servers not of administration of a DNS zone.
Note: Zone delegation is transferring authority for a subdomain to a new zone. Typically, you use zone delegation when
a business unit in an organization is large enough to warrant its own subdomain and has the personnel to manage its
own DNS server for the subdomain.
Not C: Every Windows domain zone has an _mcdcs subdomain, which holds all the SRV records for Microsoft-hosted
services, such as the global catalog, LDAP, and Kerberos.

QUESTION 7
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the DHCP Server server
role installed.
All of the client computers that are in a subnet named Subnet1 receive their IP address configurations from Server1.
You plan to add another DHCP server named Server2 to Subnet1.
You need to recommend changes to the DHCP infrastructure to ensure that the client computers continue to receive IP
addressing information if a single DHCP server fails.
What should you do?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Create a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster.
B. Configure Failover for the scope.
C. Create a DHCP failover cluster.
D. Create a split scope.
Correct Answer: B
One of the great features in Windows Server 2012 R2 is the DHCP failover for Microsoft DHCP scopes. Failover is
where the environment suffers an outage of a service which triggers the failover of that service function to a secondary
server or site. The assumption for most failover configurations is that the primary server is completely unavailable. lead4pass 70-413 exam question q7

Reference: Step-by-Step: Configure DHCP for Failover https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831385.aspx

QUESTION 8
A company has a single-forest and single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named Fabrikam.com that
runs Windows 2012 Server. The AD DS forest functional level and the domain functional level are both set to Windows
2008 R2. You use IP Address Management (IPAM) as the IP management solution. You have two DHCP Servers
named DHCP1 and DHCP2, and one IPAM server named IPAM1.
The company plans to acquire a company named Contoso, Ltd., which has a single-forest and single-domain AD DS
named contoso.com. The forest functional level and domain functional level of Contoso.com is set to Windows 2008. All
servers at Contoso run Windows Server 2008. The IP management solution at Contoso is based on a single DHCP
server named SERVER3. lead4pass 70-413 exam question q8

The total number of users in both companies will be 5000.
You have the following requirements:
The solution must be able to allocate up to three IP addresses per user. All IP address leases must be renewed every
two days.
You need to ensure that the corresponding servers will have enough capacity to store six years of IP utilization data and
eight months of event catalog data.
What should you recommend?
A. Add at least 20 GB of storage to the IPAM server.
B. Migrate Contoso.com to Fabrikam.com.
C. Establish a forest trust between Contoso.com and Fabrikam.com.
D. Upgrade SERVER3 to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: You can use IPAM to manage DHCP servers running on Windows Server 2008 R2 and above. Here
Server3 is running Windows 2008 however, so it needs to be upgraded. Reference: IPAM managed DHCP server
requirements http://windowsitpro.com/windows-server-2003-end-support/ipam-managed-dhcp-server-requirements

QUESTION 9
You need to protect the personal data of employees.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-413 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-413 exam question q9-1

Scenario:
Active Directory
The company plans to use Active Directory to store personal information for employees. Users in the branch offices
must not be able to view the confidential data that is stored for other users.
Active Directory Domain Services
The company plans to use the Employee-Number user property to store personal identification numbers.

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The
network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM) deployment. The domain contains six
servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table. lead4pass 70-413 exam question q10

You install System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) on the nodes in Cluster2.
You configure VMM to use a database in Cluster1. Server5 is the first node in the cluster.
You need to back up the VMM encryption key.
What should you back up?
A. A full system backup of Server1
B. A full system backup of Server3
C. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server5
D. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are evaluating the virtual machine environment.
In the table below, identify which virtual machines currently support ODX and which virtual machines require a
configuration change to support ODX. Make only one selection in each row.
Hot Area: lead4pass 70-413 exam question q11

Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-413 exam question q11-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-413 exam question q11-2

* VM1 uses IDE and does not support ODX. The other VMs are ok.
* ID requirements include:
Must be connected by using one of the following protocols:
iSCSI
Fibre Channel
Fibre Channel over Ethernet
Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
Note: Windows Offloaded Data Transfer (ODX) functionality in Windows maximizes an enterprise’s investment in
intelligent storage arrays by enabling the arrays to directly transfer data within or between compatible storage devices,
bypassing the host computer.
Reference: Windows Offloaded Data Transfers Overview

QUESTION 12
Your network contains multiple servers that run Windows Server 2012. All client computers run Windows 8.
You need to recommend a centralized solution to download the latest antivirus definitions for Windows Defender.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft System Center 2012 Endpoint Protection
B. Network Access Protection (NAP)
C. Microsoft System Center Essentials
D. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
Correct Answer: D
To use WSUS to deploy Windows Defender definition updates to client computers, follow these steps:
1.
Open the WSUS Administrator console, and then click Options at the top of the console.
2.
Click Synchronization Options.
3.
Under Products and Classifications, click Change under Products.
4.
Verify that the Windows Defender check box is selected, and then click OK.
5.
Under Products and Classifications, click Change under Update Classifications.
6.
Verify that the Definition Updates check box is selected, and then click OK.
7.
Optional Update the automatic approval rule. To do this, follow these steps:
a.
At the top of the console, click Options.
b.
Click Automatic Approval Options.
c.
Make sure that the Automatically approve updates for installation by using the following rule check box is selected.
d.
Under Approve for Installation, click Add/Remove Classification. e. Verify that the Definition Updates check box is
selected, and then click OK.
8.
At the top of the console, click Options.
9.
Click Synchronization Options.
10.
On the taskbar on the left, click Synchronize now.
11.
At the top of the console, click Updates.
12.
Approve any Windows Defender updates that WSUS should deploy. Reference: How to use Windows Server Update
Services (WSUS) to deploy definition updates to computers that are running Windows Defender
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/kb/919772

QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a solution for the RODC.
Which attribute should you include in the recommendation?
A. systemFlags
B. searchFlags
C. policy-Replication-Flags
D. flags
Correct Answer: B
*
Scenario: Deploy a read-only domain controller (RODC) to the London office
*
The read-only domain controller (RODC) filtered attribute set (FAS) is a set of attributes of the Active Directory schema
that is not replicated to an RODC. If you have data that you do not want to be replicated to an RODC in case it is
stolen,
you can add these attributes to the RODC FAS. If you add the attributes to the RODC FAS before you deploy the first
RODC, the attributes are never replicated to any RODC.
/ To decide which attributes to add to the RODC FAS, review any schema extensions that have been performed in your
environment and determine whether they contain credential-like data or not. In other words, you can exclude from
consideration any attributes that are part of the base schema, and review all other attributes. Base schema attributes
have the systemFlags attribute value 16 (0x10) set.
Reference: Customize the RODC Filtered Attribute Set

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