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QUESTION 1

Which two commands must you configure in the calling router to support the PPPoE client? (Choose Two) 

A. peer default ipaddress pool 

B. mtu 

C. bba-group pppoe 

D. pppoe enable group 

E. pppoe-clientdialer-pool-number 

Correct Answer: BE 

QUESTION 2

WHich DHCP option provides a TFTP server that Cisco phones can use to download a configuration? 

A. DHCP Option 66 

B. DHCP Option 68 

C. DHCP Option 82 

D. DHCP Option 57 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

Which condition must be met before two EVN devices can connect ? 

A. One VLAN interface must be configured between devices 

B. An EtherChannel configured with at least two interfaces connected between the devices. 

C. A trunk interface must be configured between devices 

D. A fiber connection must be established betwwrn the devices. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-101 exam question q4

Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP?
A. E1 and E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF
B. E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix list TO-OSPF
C. only E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF
D. only E1 subnets matching prefix listTO-OS1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the
16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address.Based on this information, what do you conclude about
these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Correct Answer: A
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface
identify them EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP
as
in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48- bit MAC address. The Mac address is
first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific.
The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as
a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address.
Here is an example showing how the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.
Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit identifies whether this
interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is locally administered and if 1, the address is
globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE have
always been set to 0 whereas the locally created addresses have 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it
maintains its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for inverting can be
found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
Once the above is done, we have a fully functional EUI-64 format address. Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/100566/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bit-address

QUESTION 6
if you configure one router in you network with auto-cost reference bandwidth 100 command, which effect on the data
path is true?
A. the data path remains the same for all links
B. the data path changes for 10Mbps links only
C. the data path changes for all links
D. the data path changes for 10GBPS links only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which type of address does OSPFv3 use to form neighbor adjacencies and to send LSAs?
A. unicast IPv6 addresses
B. link-local addresses
C. multicast address FF02::5
D. unicast IPv4 addresses
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which type of information is displayed when a network engineer executes the show track 1 command on the router?
A. information about tracking list 1
B. information about the IP route track table.
C. time to next poll for track object 1
D. tracking information statistics.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connection to various remote sites, but no OSPF
adjacencies come up. Which two actions are solutions for this issue? (Choose two)
A. router#show memory allocating-process table
B. router#show memory dead
C. router#show memory processor statistics
D. router#show memory summary
E. router#show memory events
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
A diagram with 3 routers:
+
H1 (with IPv6 IP and Loopback 1.1.1.1)
+
R1 (with IP IPv6 and Loopback 2.2.2.2)
+
R2 (with IP IPv6 and Loopback 3.3.3.3)
Running with EIGRP 100 on both routers and what command you will implement so that you will see the loopback IP of
R2 to be advertised at H1
A.
H1(config t)#router eigrp 100 H1(config t)#no stub only
B.
H1(config t) router eigrp 100 H1(config t)#no stub only
C.
R2(config t)#router eigrp 100 R2(config t)#no stub receive only
D.
R2# router eigrp 100 R2(config t)#no stub only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
How can you mitigate fragmentation issues between endpoints separated by a GRE tunnel?
A. PMTU (without “D”)
B. TCP MSS
C. windowing D. ICMP DF bit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What are three reasons to control routing updates via route filtering? (Choose three).
A. to hide certain networks from the rest of the organization
B. for easier implementation
C. to control network overhead on the wire
D. for simple security
E. to prevent adjacencies from forming
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
Users were moved from the local DHCP server to the remote corporate DHCP server. After the move, none of the users
were able to use the network. Which two issues will prevent this setup from working properly? (Choose two)
A. Auto-QoS is blocking DHCP traffic.
B. The DHCP server IP address configuration is missing locally
C. 802.1X is blocking DHCP traffic
D. The broadcast domain is too large for proper DHCP propagation
E. The route to the new DHCP server is missing
Correct Answer: BE

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QUESTION 1
An engineer has transitioned over to Telepresence-managed scheduling from direct- managed conference bridges in
TMS and has begun to see failed calls and double- bookings of conferences. What should be done to fix this?
A. Ensure the conference TelePresence Conductor is set as the preferred MCU
B. Ensure future conferences on the bridges have been migrated
C. Ensure the variable field has been manually configured
D. Ensure cascading has been enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In TMS, an externally hosted conference is a conference that has been created outside of your Cisco TMS. You can
schedule endpoints in your organization to pin this conference by booking Externally Hosted Conference. Which two
features can be used for participants with an Externally Hosted Conference? (Choose two)
A. MCUs
B. non-SIP dial-in participants
C. Automatic Connect dial-in type
D. recording participants
E. One-Button-To-Push dial-in type
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You have just installed Cisco Unity Express. Now you want to configure history depth and set it to its maximum value.
Which value should you define as the maximum value?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
E. 50
F. 75
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When using the Cisco VCS command line, what happens if you use an existing option index to add an extra option
key?
A. The system generates an error and cancels the operation.
B. The existing option is overwritten and provides the functionality of both option keys.
C. The existing option is overwritten, and the functionality was provided by that option key no longer exists.
D. The new option key is added, but it does not provide any functionality until the old option key is deleted.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two steps are required to ensure a successful LDAP integration in a Cisco Unity Connection server? (Choose
two.)
A. Specify a regular expression that converts phone numbers into extensions.
B. Upload SSL certificates.
C. Activate the Cisco DirSync service.
D. Configure LDAP authentication.
E. Upon completion, save and perform a full synchronization.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In Cisco Unity Express, where are privilege levels assigned?
A. Administrators
B. User Groups
C. Users
D. Mailbox Admins
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What is required on the Cisco Unified Presence server, when integrating Cisco Unified Presence with Cisco Unity
Connection, in order for users to be allowed to view, play, sort, and delete voicemail messages?
A. H.323 trunk
B. XMPP connection
C. SIP trunk
D. AXL configuration
E. Voicemail Profile
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
The CEO of a company does not want external callers to be able to dial him directly through the Cisco Unity Connection
directory search. Which of the following methods is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Do not activate the CEO as a Cisco Unity Connection subscriber.
B. Configure a directory call handler that blocks all transfers.
C. Configure a directory handler that uses a partition and calling search space to allow calls to everyone except to the
CEO.
D. Use the preconfigured partition and calling search space. No other configuration is necessary.
E. Configure a restricted partition and assign it to the CEO. Create a directory call handler for external users with a
search scope that does not contain the CEO partition.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service provide which three features? (Choose three.)
A. integrated management
B. Cisco Instant Sharing
C. BLF presence
D. instant messaging
E. Microsoft Outlook calendar integration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-085 exam question q10

What can you determine from the Cisco Unity Connection configuration?
A. 10.1.1.1 is the Cisco Unity Connection server IP address.
B. Authentication must be enabled, or MWI is not displayed on the phones.
C. 10.1.1.1 is the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server IP address.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager voicemail ports must begin with “PhoneSystem.”
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
When using the Cisco VCS command line, what happens if you use an existing option index to add an extra option
Key?
A. The system generates an error and cancels the operation.
B. The new option key is added, but it does not provide any functionality until the old option key is deleted.
C. he existing option is overwritten, and the functionality that was provided by that option key no longer exists.
D. The existing option is overwritten and provides the functionality of both option keys.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is the maximum number of custom auto-attendant applications that you can set up in Cisco Unity Express?
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
In Cisco Unity Connection, which two methods can you use to segregate the global dial and message addressing
space? (Choose two.)
A. SIP trunk
B. search spaces
C. route patterns
D. translation patterns
E. partitions
F. hunt pilot
Correct Answer: BE

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QUESTION 1
You implement multiple registrars for SIP trunks for the Cisco Unified Border Element to ensure redundant PSTN
access, you fee receive an error that indicates that the registration server is invalid. Which two commands correct the
problem? (Choose two.)
A. registrar 2 ipv4:1.1.1.1 expires 360
B. CUSP registrar 9 dns:cisco.com expires 60
C. no registrar 2 dns:cisco.com expires 60
D. registrar 20 dns:cisco.com
E. registrar 1 dns:cisco.com expires 180
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 2
A Cisco TelePresence SX80 Dial is registered on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is calling a registered H.323
an endpoint that is registered to a Cisco VCS Control within the same campus. The call is placed using 6 Mb, however only
a 1 Mb call is set up. Where can you find two possible causes for this issue? (Choose two)
A. The Cisco Telepresence SX80. which needs an option key to call over 2 Mb. which also enables multisite calls
B. in the Region settings in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. bandwidth settings in the SIP trunk profile
D. legacy telepresence systems that are registered to the Cisco VCS Control and can only do 1 Mb towards a Cisco
Unified Communications Manager system
E. a link and pipe configuration on the VCS to Osco Unified Communications Manager subzone
F. in the subzone settings of the registered H 323 endpoint
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
When identifying Cisco TelePresence Endpoint traffic characteristics, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Latency, jitter, and loss are measured in a round-trip fashion.
B. Latency, jitter, and loss are measured unidirectionally.
C. Latency and loss are measured at a packet level, based on RTP header sequence numbers and time stamps.
D. Latency and jitter are measured at a packet level, based on RTP header sequence numbers and time stamps.
E. Jitter is measured at a video frame level, by measuring the arrival time of the video frame versus the expected arrival
time.
F. Jitter is measured at a packet level, by measuring the arrival time of the packet versus the expected arrival time.
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 4
If a user receives a reorder tone after dialing a number, the Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth
allocation for the location of one of the call end devices may have been exceeded. Which option is true?
A. If the call is using G.711, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 64k. If the call is using G.723, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 16k.
If the call is using G.729, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 8k.
B. If the call is using G.711, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 80k. If the call is using G.723, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 24k.
If the call is using G.729, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 24k.
C. If the call is using G.711, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 80k. If the call is using G.723, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 24k.
If the call is using G.729, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 16k.
D. If the call is using G.711, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 64k. If the call is using G.723, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 24k.
If the call is using G.729, Cisco Unified CM subtracts 8k.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which statement indicates something that can cause an inbound PSTN call to an H.323 gateway that is configured in
Cisco Unified Communications Manager to fail to ring an IP phone?
A. The gateway is not registered in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The gateway IP address that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not match the IP address
that is configured at the gateway in the h323-gateway VoIP bind srcaddr command.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a matching route pattern to match the called number.
D. The gateway is missing the command allow-connections h323 to h323 under the voice service VoIP configuration.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
System A at Company 1 is calling System Bat Company 2. The call completes, but only audio and video are present on
System A from System B. What are three possible causes? (Choose three.)
A. System A cannot call System B because it is at a different company.
B. There is a firewall in the path that is blocking audio and video traffic from Company 1 to Company 2.
C. The firewall at Company 1 is blocking outgoing traffic.
D. An access list is blocking video and audio somewhere in the video and audio path between System A and System B.
E. System A has turned off the camera and the microphone.
Correct Answer: BDE

 

QUESTION 7
During a business-to-business video call through the Cisco Expressway solution, the internal endpoint can call out to the
remote endpoint on the Internet, but it does not receive audio or video. The remote endpoint receives both audio and
video. What is causing the issue?
A. The Cisco Expressway does not have a Rich Media Session license.
B. The firewall is blocking SIP signaling.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not configured for business-to-business calling.
D. The firewall is blocking inbound RTP ports.
E. The Advanced Networking option is not installed on the Expressway Edge.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to topology and Exhibits below: A call from an SX20 in the BackBone (not shown) with a URI extension is dialing a
HQ Ph 1 that is registered to the HQ CUCM. Determine if the call fails and if so, what are the two causes? (Choose
two).lead4pass 300-080 exam question q8 lead4pass 300-080 exam question q8-1 lead4pass 300-080 exam question q8-2 lead4pass 300-080 exam question q8-3

A. The call succeeds.
B. The call fails.
C. There are no issues, so the call succeeds.
D. The SIP port is incorrect on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager CUCM SIP trunk.
E. The Local Zone Match Rule state is disabled.
F. Rule name UCM2 is set to stop on Match
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 9
In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, what is the default maximum number of learned patterns for the call control
discovery feature parameter?
A. 5000
B. 10000
C. 20000
D. 500
E. 50000
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-080 exam question q10

Assume a centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology with the headquarters at RTP and remote
located at the U.K. All route patterns are assigned a route list that contains a route group pointing to the local gateway.
RTP route patterns use the RTP gateway, and U.K. route patterns use the U.K. gateway.
When a U.K. user logs into an RTP phone using the Cisco Extension Mobility feature and places an emergency call to
0000, which statement about the emergency call is true?
A. The call will match the U.K_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the RTP gateway.
B. The call will match the U.K_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the U.K.gateway.
C. The call will match the RTP_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the RTP gateway.
D. The call will match the RTP_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the U.K. gateway.
E. The call will fail.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
What does the debug output show?
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-080 exam question q11

A. a DSP farm profile shutdown
B. a DSP farm profile registration failure due to a TCP connection error
C. a DSP farm profile registration failure Message due to a mismatched name
D. that SCCP is not activated
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-080 exam question q12

According to the log diagram, what is the reason that the call ended?
A. The call was put on hold.
B. The call was experiencing one-way audio.
C. The call was completed successfully.
D. The call was transferred.
E. The call dropped out.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Endpoint A is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager at [email protected]. It is trying to call Endpoint B,
which is registered to the same company\\’s Cisco VCS Control with an H.323 ID of [email protected]. The
route pattern is set to “*.*” and is pointed to a SIP trunk to the Cisco VCS Control. The search rule for
(.*)[email protected] is set to search the local zone. The call does not work. What is a possible reason?
A. There is no search pattern to route the call to System B.
B. There is no valid route pattern to route from System A to System B.
C. System B is registered as H.323 and needs to use an E.164 alias number only.
D. The Cisco VCS Control should be neighbor to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. You need an MGCP gateway to route from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager to the Cisco VCS Control.
F. The Cisco VCS Control is missing the Cisco Unified Communications Manager interop option.
G. The Cisco VCS Control is missing the interworking option.
Correct Answer: G

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QUESTION 1lead4pass 300-170 exam question q1

Refer to the exhibit. What is created by the configuration?
A. an L3Out
B. an L3OUT-1 bridge domain
C. three subnets within a BD
D. a CTX1 tenant
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are attempting to install a switch remotely. You have a POAP script that fails to find a specified boot image on the
switch. Which action do you take?
A. Adjust the script to use any image on the switch.
B. Reboot the switch
C. Abort the provisioning process
D. Download a copy of the image used by the script
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3lead4pass 300-170 exam question q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the state of the in-band management configuration is true?
A. A contract named default is consumed by the in-band EPG.
B. In-band management is functional.
C. VLAN 10 is the in-band management VLAN.
D. A bridge domain was not assigned.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-170 exam question q4

You are verifying connectivity within a leaf device. You attempt to connect to a destination server in VLAN 17, and you
then run the show mac-address-table command as shown. Why does the show mac address-table output show a
different VLAN?
A. The wrong AEP is attached to the leaf ports.
B. The VLAN configuration on the leaf switch is incorrect.
C. The VLAN ID shown is used for identification and internal mapping within the ACI leaf.
D. When traffic appears, the Cisco ACI marks ports with VLAN 17.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the benefits of using the configuration synchronization feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports the feature command
B. It supports existing session and port profile functionality
C. It can be used by any Cisco Nexus switch
D. It merges configurations when connectivity is established between peers
E. It supports FCoE in vPC topologies
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/operations/n5k_config_sync_ops.html

QUESTION 6
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local
nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local nodes is true?
A. After five minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
B. The local database if cleared only when the leaf reboots.
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests after an aging period. The MAC addresses are stored to the local endpoint
database as long as the devices respond to the requests
D. After 15 minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 300-170 exam question q7

Refer to the exhibit. You must extend Layer 2 services out of the Cisco ACI fabric without configuring contracts for the
connected devices. Which option do you extend?
A. EPG out of the ACI fabric
B. Layer 2 domain by using remote VTEP
C. bridge domain out of the ACI fabric
D. VMM out of the ACI fabric
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which tool can you use to convert XML/JSON REST code to Python code?
A. Postman
B. Cobra
C. Arya
D. API Inspector
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://communities.cisco.com/community/developer/aci/blog/2016/07/06/learning-aci–programming-the-aci-fabric

QUESTION 9
You are configuring a Cisco UCS port channel. Drag and drop the description from the left onto the correct port channel
types on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-170 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-170 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
Which action must you take to implement VXLAN in an environment that runs the Cisco Nexus 1000v Essential edition?
A. Enable the feature by using the feature vxlan-gateway command
B. Enable the feature by using the feature segmentation command
C. Purchase and install a Cisco Nexus 1000v Enterprise edition license
D. Purchase and install a Cisco Nexus 1000v Advanced edition license
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-1000v-switch/117618-configure-N1kV-00.html

QUESTION 11
Which situation causes POAP to auto-provision a switch?
A. The startup configuration is missing.
B. The switch is powered on after being offline for more than 48 hours.
C. The startup configuration is corrupt.
D. The startup configuration is corrupt, and you manually rebooted the switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local
nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local hosts is true?
A. After five minutes of inactivity, the hosts are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
B. The local database is cleared only when the leaf reboots.
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests to the hosts after an aging period. If the switch receives no response, the hosts
are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
D. After 30 minutes of inactivity, the hosts are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a network that has three subnets. You migrate the network to a Cisco ACI fabric. You want to bridge the three
subnets without changing the IP addresses of the endpoints. The default gateway for the endpoints does not sit on the
ACI fabric. Which action must you take to keep the three subnets in a single flood domain?
A. Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing disabled within the same EPG. Connect the existing
subnets to the bridge domains.
B. Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing disabled and connects the existing subnets to the bridge domain.
C. Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing enabled and create corresponding subnets inside the bridge
domain. Connect the existing network to the bridge domain.
D. Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing enabled within the same EPG. Create corresponding
subnets inside the bridge domains and connect the existing network to the bridge domains.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/migration_guides/migrating_existing_networks_to_aci.html

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Free test Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which protocol can you use to automate the process of provisioning new devices in a data center?
A. LISP
B. LACP
C. PAgP
D. LDP
E. POAP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Refer to the Exhibit:lead4pass 300-160 exam question q2

Which action does Cisco ITD perform when a node fails?
A. evenly distribute traffic across all the remaining nodes.
B. transparently adds nodes to the war-dog
C. assigns failed node buckets to another active node
D. removes the failed node from the war-dog
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet bandwidth to a
Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E
F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
Correct Answer: ACFH

QUESTION 4
Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active-active path to the
upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario
Review topology and screenshots, and then answer questions that validate your knowledge of
Cisco Nexus Switches.lead4pass 300-160 exam question q5

Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
Review the Exhibit associated with the question.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q5-1

Refer to the Topology in Exhibit 1. Which of the following statements is true?
A. All four links from the Cisco Nexus7000s to the Cisco Nexus 5000s are forwarding.
B. Multipath I/O from the Cisco UCS C200 servers to Fibre Channel storage is unavailable with this topology.
C. The Fabric Extenders are simultaneously active on the Cisco Nexus 5000s and Cisco Nexus 7000 switches.
D. The Fabric Extenders support FCoE.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which type of switch interfaces are supported in classic NPV mode for a Fibre Channel network?
A. the vFC internal port and the physical external port
B. the physical internal port and the physical external port
C. the vFC internal port and the vFC external port
D. the vFC external port and the physical internal port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network?
(Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS – policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS – classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Correct Answer: CFH

QUESTION 8lead4pass 300-160 exam question q8 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q8-1

Which IPv6 destination address is scoped as globally routable?
A. ff01::101
B. ff02:101
C. ff05::101
D. ff08::101
E. ff0e::101
Correct Answer: E
Some well-known multicast Group IDs are defined for variable scopes. A good example is the All NTP (Network Time
Protocol) Servers address:
FF02::101 All NTP Servers Link-Local FF04::101 All NTP Servers Admin Local FF05::101 All NTP Servers Site Local
FF08::101 All NTP Servers Organization Local FF0E::101 All NTP Servers Global
Reference: http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/nistpubs/800-119/sp800-119.pdf

QUESTION 9
You plan to extend a single-site data center to a dual-site solution that will use an IP-based Layer 3 interconnect using
Cisco Nexus switches. The solution must support virtual machine migrations between the two sites. Which protocol
must you use?
A. MPLS L3VPN
B. VPLS
C. OTV
D. BGP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-160 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q10-1

QUESTION 11lead4pass 300-160 exam question q11 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q11-1

Give the above configuration example answer the following question.
What is the number of Hosts required for the above configurations?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 7
D. 11
E. 16
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two devices should you recommend to implement at the ToR in your data center design for the access layer
connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which option is a characteristic of the data center aggregation layer?
A. segments groups of applications and isolates problems
B. provides access for IP multicast applications
C. offers QoS services, such as the classification and marking of traffic
D. is a high-speed backbone of the data center
Correct Answer: A

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Latest effective Cisco 648-232 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The current WebEx audio solution requires all audio to flow through the PSTN. How does this differ from cloud-
connected audio?
A. Customers connect via a VPN.
B. Customers connect with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Customers connect through a direct IP connection.
D. Customers connect via a media gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support
team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What network bandwidth is recommended for high-quality WebEx video services?
A. above 130 Kb/s per participant
B. above 90 Mb/s per participant
C. above 2 Mb/s per participant
D. above 1 Mb/s per participant
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are
offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
NBR functionality features the Meeting Zone architecture. What is the purpose of this?
A. allows storage of data, video, and audio streams in separate databases
B. allows local storage of data, video, and audio streams
C. allows storage of data, video, and audio streams in a single database
D. allows storage of an individual stream in a database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which customers would benefit from Cisco WebEx audio?
A. customers who do not need to join a meeting via their mobile device
B. customers who have more than 500 VoIP users
C. customers using meeting spaces
D. customers who need an integrated audio feature such as active speaker or hybrid VoIP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about screenshot captures in Enterprise IM?
A. Screenshot captures are not supported in group, third-party, or web IM sessions.
B. Screen captures and file transfers can be done at any time throughout the web IM session.
C. Screen captures need to be done by a third party.
D. Only administration has the rights to capture screenshots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
How will the branding be displayed if you join a meeting on another company site?
A. It will show in text format only.
B. Branding will not be shown.
C. It will be shown by using two-level branding.
D. It will be shown using default settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
Correct Answer: B

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The 642-883 SPROUTE Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing exam is associated with the CCNP Service Provider certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge in configuring, verifying, and troubleshooting IPv4 and IPv6 advanced OSPF and IS-IS configuration, BGP configuration, using Cisco IOS-XR RPL to implement routing policies, and implementing high availability routing supporting a service provider network. This exam covers the Cisco IOS, IOS-XE and IOS-XR operating systems. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE) course. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

Latest effective Cisco 642-883 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about an EBGP session or an IBGP session? (Choose two.)
A. IBGP uses AS-Path to detect routing information loops within the AS.
B. EBGP routes have a default Admin Distance of 20 and IBGP routes have a default Admin Distance of 200.
C. No BGP attributes are changed in EBGP updates except for the next-hop attribute if next-hop-self is configured.
D. Routes learned from an EBGP peer not advertised to another EBGP peer to prevent routing information loops.
E. IBGP uses split horizon to prevent routing information loops; routes learned from an IBGP peer are not advertised to
another IBGP peer.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2lead4pass 642-883 exam question q2 lead4pass 642-883 exam question q2-1What is the configured IS-IS circuit-type between the CE5 and PE5 routers and between the PE5 and PE6 routers?
(Choose two.)
A. Circuittype L1 between CE5 and PE5 4
B. Circuittype L1/L2 between CE5 and PE5
C. Circuittype L2 between CE5 and PE5
D. Circuittype L1 between PE5 and PE6
E. Circuittype L1/L2 between PE5 and PE6
F. Circuittype L2 between PE5 and PE6
Correct Answer: AF
#show clns neighbor

QUESTION 3
Which option is used by BGP for basic authentication between neighbors?
A. TCP option 19 and MD5 hash
B. TCP option 19 and SHA hash
C. UDP option 19 and MD5 hash
D. UDP option 19 and SHA hash
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A Network Operation Center requires support to understand OSPFv3 neighborship operations. During a migration, two
OSPFv3 routers became adjacent even though no common subnets were configured on the link interfaces. Which
statement explains this problem?
A. This problem is a bug in Cisco IOS XE, which requires a case tobe open with Cisco TAC and an immediate Cisco
IOS upgrade to avoid security breaches and rerouting attacks.
B. IPv6 needs only the link-local address to from an OSPFv3 neighborship.
C. The Network Operation Center Engineers did not notice a supernet configured on one end of the IPv6 link.
D. The Network Operation Center Engineers did not add the secondary keyword after the IPv6 address, which causes
the router to overwrite the main address.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An engineer wants to use an address family to configure internal BGP peer 10.1.1.1 as a route reflector client for unicast
and multicast prefixes. Which option accomplishes this configuration?
A. router bgp 140 address-family ipv4 unicast neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 140 address-family ipv4 unicast route-
reflector-client exit address-family ipv4 multicast route-reflector-client
B. router bgp 140 neighbor 10.1.1.1 address-family ipv4 unicast address-family ipv4 multicast remote-as 150 route-
reflector-client exit
C. router bgp 140 address-family ipv4 unicast route-reflector-client address-family ipv4 multicast remote-as 140
neighbor 10.1.1.1
D. router bgp 140 address-family ipv4 unicast neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 150 address-family ipv4 unicast route-
reflector-client exit address-family ipv4 multicast route-reflector-client
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-883 exam question q6Which configuration is required on XR2 to enable MD5 IS-IS Authentication between R1 and XR2 using the password
CISCO?
A. Router isis ABC interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 hello-password encrypted CISCO
B. Router isis ABC interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 hello-password hmac-md5 CISCO
C. Router isis ABC lsp-password hmac-md5 CISCO
D. Router isis ABC lsp-password encrypted CISCO
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are implementing OSPF as the IGP using a single OSPF area design. The router memory usage for OSPF is too
high. Which two methods can lower the OSPF memory usage? (Choose two.)
A. Enable OSPF synchronization
B. Implement multi-area OSPF
C. Enable OSPF sham links to reduce the number of LSAs
D. Implement route summarization on the ABRs
E. Enable route leaking between Level 1 and Level 2 areas
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
A service provider is about to purchase more IPv4 address space. Which organization can facilitate this purchase?
A. APNIC
B. IETF
C. USANOG
D. IEEE
E. NANOG
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
When configuring Cisco IOS XR route policy nesting, which command is used within a route policy to call another route
policy?
A. Apply
B. Continue
C. Jump
D. Go to
E. Call
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios_xr_sw/iosxr_r3.7/routing/command/reference/rr37plc y.html
Examples In the following example, the policy CustomerIn applies the route-policy SetLocalPref to conditionally set the
local preference on a route. The parameters 20, 30, 40, and 50 are passed to the parameterized policy SetLocalPref,
where the local preference is set to:
?0, if the community 217:20 is present in the route ?0, if the community 217:30 is present in the route ?0, if the
community 217:40 is present in the route ?0, if the community 217:50 is present in the route
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config)# route-policy SetLocalPref ($lp0, $lp1, $lp2, $lp3, $lp4) RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-
rpl)# if community matches-any ($lp0:$lp1)then RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# set local-preference $lp1
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# elseif community matches-any ($lp0:$lp2) then RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-
rpl-elseif)# set local-preference $lp2 RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# elseif community matches-any
($lp0:$lp3) then RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# set local-preference $lp3 RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-
elseif)# elseif community matches-any ($lp0:$lp4) then RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# set local-preference
$lp4 RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# endif RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# end-policy
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config)# route-policy CustomerIn($cust) RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# apply SetLocalPref
($cust, 20, 30, 40, 50) RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# end-policy RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config)# route-policy
Cust_217 RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# apply CustomerIn(217) RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# end-policy

QUESTION 10
For a Cisco IOS XR router, under which BGP configuration group can default-originate be added?
A. session-group
B. af-group
C. neighbor-group
D. peer-session template
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
An engineer is troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency between the R1 and R2 and is seeing the following debug:
R2#debug ip ospf adj
*May 10 17:48:27.459: OSPF: Rcv pkt from 10.1.2.1, FastEthernet1/0 : Mismatch Authentication type. Input packet
specified type 1, we use type 2
Which option describes why the adjacency cannot be established?
A. R1 is configured for plaintext authentication.
B. R1 is not configured for authentication.
C. R2 is not configured for authentication.
D. R2 is configured for plaintext authentication.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized
route into which IS-IS hierarchy?
A. Level 1 only
B. Level 2 only
C. Level-1-2 only
D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2
Correct Answer: Dlead4pass 642-883 exam question q12C:\Documents and Settings\user-nwz\Desktop\1.JPG

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-883 exam question q13A service provider (AS65000) is interconnected to two upstream providers (ISP 1 neighbor IP 192.168.1.1 and ISP 2
neighbor IP 192.168.1.2) via a single link in a peering exchange. Which option can an engineer use to implement
nonproprietary policies to make ISP 1 the preferred link for incoming and outgoing traffic from the local SP?
A. route-map outgoing permit 10set-as ?ath prepend 65000 65000 65000route-map incoming permit 10set local-
preference 1000router bgp 65000neighbor 192.168.1.1 route- map incoming outneighbor 192.168.1.1 route-map
outgoing in
B. route-map outgoing permit 10set metric 100route-map incoming permit 10set weight 100router bgp 65000neighbor
192.168.1.1 route-map incoming inneighbor 192.168.1.1 route-map outgoing out
C. route-map outgoing permit 10set-as ?ath prepend 65000 65000 65000route-map incoming permit 10set local-
preference 1000router bgp 65000neighbor 192.168.1.1 route- map incoming inneighbor 192.168.1.2 route-map
outgoing out
D. set-as ?ath prepend 65000 65000 65000route-map incoming permit 10set weight 100router bgp 65000neighbor
192.168.1.1 route-map incoming inneighbor 192.168.1.1 route-map outgoing out
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
In a Cisco IOS XR OSPF NSF operation, which option is the result of a segment without NSF-capable peers?
A. NSF is disabled on all segmentson any linecard that has a non-NSF-capable neighbor.
B. NSF capabilities for that segment are disabled.
C. NSF operates in unidirectional mode for that segment.
D. NSF is disabled globally on the router.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding OSPFv2 or OSPFv3 authentication are correct? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv2 supports MD5 authentication.
B. OSPFv2 supports MD5 or SHA authentication.
C. OSPFv2 relies on the native security stack that uses IPsec.
D. OSPFv3 supports MD5 authentication.
E. OSPFv3 supports MD5 or SHA authentication.
F. OSPFv3 relies on the native security stack that uses IPsec.
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 16
A Cisco IOS XR router is a member in OSPF 1 and EIGRP 100 domains, and needs to redistribute OSPF learned
routes into EIGRP. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. router eigrp 100 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 1
B. router eigrp 100 redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10
255 1 155
C. router eigrp 100 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set
eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155
D. router eigrp 100 default-metric 100 1 255 1 1500 redistribute ospf 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important?
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-IS
C. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: Blead4pass 642-883 exam question q17C:\Documents and Settings\user-nwz\Desktop\1.JPG

QUESTION 18
A service provider is deploying route redistributions for a large enterprise that wants to unify a few IGP routing domains
into one to condense administration as well as common network and security policies. Which technique should be used
to safely assume that the new routing domain is loop free?
A. Enable filtering based on route-tagging on the redistribution points to avoid route- feedback.
B. Define a static route to Null0 for all of the outgoing traffic on the redistribution points.
C. Modify the metric associated with each redistributed prefix to implement loop-avoidance for inter-IGP routing domain
designs.
D. Disable the routing process on the interfaces with route-feedback potential on the redistribution points.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-883 exam question q19Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2.
B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1.
C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only.
D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1.
E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2.
F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
What are three common problems that can cause a BGP neighbor state to toggle between the idle state and the active
state? (Choose three.)
A. BGP network command misconfiguration
B. route policy misconfiguration
C. AS number misconfiguration
D. route map misconfiguration
E. BGP neighbor peering to wrong IP address
F. IGP routing problem: not able to reach the source IP address of the BGP open packet
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 21
Which option describes the configuration for a Cisco IOS XR OSPF router to give it the highest chances of becoming
DR?
A. ip ospf priority 0 under the OSPF interface statement
B. ip ospf priority 0 under the OSPF area statement
C. ip ospf priority 255 under the OSPF interface statement
D. ip ospf priority 255 under the OSPF area statement
E. Leave priority unchanged, but assign a high-numbered IP address on a loopback interface.
F. Leave priority unchanged, but assign a high-numbered IP address on any physical interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which option is an invalid BGP community representation?
A. binary
B. autonomous system number : value
C. hexadecimal
D. decimal
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Under which two conditions does an enterprise require BGP peering with its upstream Internet provider? (Choose two.)
A. The enterprise has two exit points that are geographically separated and routing must be controlled so that delay
variations are reduced.
B. The enterprise has one exit point and must announce the IP class it has been assigned from its ISP.
C. The enterprise has two Layer 2 links to the upstream ISP in the same location and wants to achieve redundancy.
D. The enterprise needs a simple and efficient way to ensure proper routing for its AP subnets on its single ISP link.
E. The enterprise is multihomed to two ISPs and has its own IP space AS number.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 24
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to- multipoint OSPF network type D.
All networks type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What are two characteristics of the multihomed customers to service providers connection option? (Choose two.)
A. Multihomed customers must use a private AS number.
B. The traffic load can be shared for different destination networks between service providers.
C. Multihomed customers must receive a full routing table from the service providers.
D. The routing methodology must be capable of reacting to dynamic changes. BGP is used to achieve this flexibility.
E. Multihomed customers must use a provider-assigned address space.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
A network specialist is working for a large enterprise that has a BGP-enabled multihomed core infrastructure. Recently,
the ISP that provides Internet connectivity to the company had to temporarily disable one of the BGP sessions as a
result of routers blackholing BGP prefixes in transit. Which option can the specialist use to avoid this incident in the
future?
A. filtering local prefixes outbound
B. using only one router as primary BGP speaker
C. permitting only local prefixes outbound
D. filtering external prefixes inbound
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
BGP peerings can be secured using which protection mechanism?
A. SHA authentication
B. MD5 authentication
C. SSH
D. SSL
E. AAA
F. digital certificates
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080b 52107.shtml

QUESTION 28
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit
AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/iosswrel/ps6537/ps6554/ps6599/4byte_asnios. pdf
New Reserved AS# AS_TRANS = AS #23456 2-byte placeholder for a 4-byte AS number Used for backward
compatibility between OLD and NEW BGP speakers

QUESTION 29lead4pass 642-883 exam question q29 lead4pass 642-883 exam question q29-1 lead4pass 642-883 exam question q29-2

How many total OSPF virtual links are configured in this multiarea OSPF network which supports both OSPFv2 and
OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6 routing?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
#Show running-config | include virtual ?check how many router having “virtual ” entry

QUESTION 30
Refer to the OSPF command exhibit.lead4pass 642-883 exam question q30

Which effect does the no-summary command option have?
A. It will cause area 1 to be able to receive non-summarized inter-area routes.
B. It will cause area 1 to not receive any inter-area routes and will use a default route to reach networks in other areas.
C. It will cause area 1 to not receive any external routes and will use a default route to reach the external networks.
D. It will convert the NSSA area into a NSSA totally stubby area.
E. It will convert the stubby area into a NSSA.
F. It will disable OSPF auto-summary.
Correct Answer: B

lead4pass 642-883 exam question q30-1 lead4pass 642-883 exam question q30-2

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Helpful Microsoft MCSE 70-342 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Contoso, Ltd., and Fabrikam, Inc., are partner companies.
Each company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization in a data center that is connected to the Internet. All of the Exchange servers in both of the organizations have the Client Access server role and the Mailbox role installed.
The data centers connect to each other by using a redundant high-speed WAN link.
The following mail exchanger (MX) records are configured:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
You need to recommend a solution for inbound mail flow.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
* Users in both companies must receive email from the Internet if either of the Internet links fails.
* Mail from the Internet to contoso.com must be received by mail.contoso.com if the Internet link at the Contoso data center is available.
* Mail from the Internet to fabrikam.com must be received by mail.fabrikam.com if the Internet link at the Fabrikam data center is available.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 20 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 20 mail.contoso.com
B. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
C. For each organization, configure an internal relay domain and a Send connector.
D. For each organization, configure an external relay domain and a Receive connector.
E. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 5 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 5 mail.contoso.com
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-342 dumps
EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2.
EX1 fails.
You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2.
You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
70-342 dumps
You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your company has a data center in New York and a data center in Miami.
The company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG). The DAG contains servers in both data centers.
The company plans to deploy Outlook Anywhere to all users.
You configure the following:
• All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the New York data center use a host name of mail.contoso.com.
• All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the Miami data center use a host name of miami.mail.contoso.com.
In each data center, a certificate from an enterprise certification authority (CA) is configured to contain the following:
• A certificate principal name of mail.contoso.com
• Subject alternate names of mail.contoso.com and miami.mail.contoso.com
You need to recommend which task must be performed to meet the following requirements:
• Users always must attempt to connect first to a server in the data center where their mailbox is located.
• Users must be able to access their mailbox if a single data center fails.
What should you recommend?
A. Change the external host name of the Miami data center to mail.contoso.com.
B. Modify the ExternalUrl of the Autodiscover virtual directory of the Client Access servers.
C. Run the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet.
D. Run the Add-AvailabilityAddressSpace cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. 70-342 dumps
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 7
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?
A. Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B. Set-MailPublicFolder
C. Update-PublicFolderMailbox
D. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365.
The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed.
A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365.
You need to unlock the account of User1.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Office 365.
The mail flow between Office 365 and the on-premises Exchange Server environment is routed through an Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server.
Your company is assigned a new set of public IP addresses.
A network administrator updates the external firewall address and all of the associated DNS records.
Office 365 users report that they cannot receive email messages from on-premises users. You discover that outgoing email messages to Office 365 are in the Office 365 SMTP queue on an Edge server.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages successfully to the Office 365 users.
Which tool should you use?
A. The Exchange Management Console
B. The Exchange Control Panel in Office 365
C. The Exchange Admin Center
D. The Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You have a database availability group (DAG) that contains four Exchange servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4. The file share witness is on a server named Share1.
The organization has two Send connectors. The Send connectors are configured as shown in the following table.
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Users report that email sent to external recipients is not being received.
You discover that outbound email messages are queued on Server3 and Server4.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages queued on Server3 and Server4 are delivered to the Internet as quickly as possible.
What should you do?
A. Modify the cost of External2.
B. Disable External1.
C. Modify the list of source bridgehead servers of External2.
D. Modify the cost of External1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? 70-342 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 14
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization that contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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Microsoft Outlook is configured to connect to an FQDN of mail.adatum.com. Mail.adatum.com resolves to the IP address of a Layer 7 hardware load balancer. The hardware load balancer is configured to send traffic to EX2 and EX3.
You deploy an Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server named EX4 and an Exchange Server 2013 Client Access server named EX5.
You plan to migrate all mailboxes to Exchange Server 2013.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can access their mailbox on EX1 or EX4 during the migration.
What should you do?
A. Create a Client Access server array that contains EX1 and EX5.
B. Modify the autodiscover.contoso.com resource record to point to EX5.
C. Modify the properties of the hardware load balancer to point to EX5.
D. Create a DNS record named legacy.contoso.com in the internal DNS zone.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Your company has three data centers. The data centers are located in Montreal, New York, and Seattle. You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

The organization is configured as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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The file share witness for DAG1 is located on EX3.
You plan to implement site resiliency and use a single name space named mail.contoso.com.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of time that the Exchange Server services are unavailable if either the data center in Montreal or the data center in Seattle fails.
Which two tasks should you recommend performing? (Each correct answer presents part of solution. Choose two.)
A. Deploy a hardware load balancer to EX3 and EX6.
B. Create two DNS host (A) records for mail.contoso.com.
C. Configure EX6 as an alternate file share witness.
D. Move the file share witness to Server1.
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 11
You develop an HTML application that is located at www.adventure-works.com.
The application must load JSON data from www.fabrikam.com.
You need to choose an approach for loading the data.
What should you do?
A. Design a REST URI scheme with multiple domains.
B. Configure Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) on the servers.
C. Load the data by using WebSockets.
D. Use the jQuery getJSON method.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) is a mechanism that allows Javascript on a web page to make XMLHttpRequests to another domain, not the domain the Javascript originated from. Such “cross-domain” requests would otherwise be forbidden by web browsers, per the same origin security policy. CORS defines a way in which the browser and the server can interact to determine whether or not to allow the cross-origin request.[2] It is more powerful than only allowing same-origin requests, but it is more secure than simply allowing all such cross-origin requests.
* You must use Cross Origin Resource Sharing
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self.response.headers.add_header(‘Access-Control-Allow-Headers’, ‘X-Requested-With’); self.response.headers.add_header(‘Access-Control-Max-Age’, ‘86400’);

QUESTION 12
You are creating a custom object as described by the following code.
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You need to implement the calcArea method.
Which code should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Need to refer to .this in the calculation.

QUESTION 13
You are developing a web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
You need to ensure that a value is entered into txtValue before the form is submitted.
Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You are developing a web application by using HTML5.
You have the following requirements.
The color of a menu item must change when a user hovers over the item. The color of the menu item must change back to its original color after five seconds. 70-480 dumps
You need to ensure that the animation is applied to all menu items.
Which CSS3 code should you use?
70-480 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
transition-property
The transition-property property specifies the name of the CSS property the transition effect is for (the transition effect will start when the specified CSS property changes).
Tip: A transition effect could typically occur when a user hover over an element.
Note: Always specify the transition-duration property, otherwise the duration is 0, and the transition will have no effect.
CSS3 transition-property Property

QUESTION 15
You develop an HTML5 webpage. You have the following JavaScript code:
70-480 dumps
You need to handle the click event when a user clicks the showDialog button.
Which code segment should you insert at line 02?
A. $ (document).trigger(“click”, “#showDialog”, function (e) {
B. $ (document).on (“#showDialog”, “click”, function (e) {
C. $(document).toggle(“click”, “#showDialog”, function (e) {
D. $(document).on(“click”, “#showDialog”, function (e) {
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Syntax: .on( events [, selector ] [, data ], handler )
* Example:
$(function() {
$(document).on(‘click’, ‘.get-widgets’, function (e) {

QUESTION 16
Which CSS3 code fragment styles an H2 element only if it is a direct child of a DIV element?
A. h2 > div {background-color: #900;}
B. div, h2 {background-color: #900;}
C. div {background-color: #900;}h2 {background-color: #900;}
D. div > h2 {background-color: #900;}
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You are developing an application that processes order information. Thousands of orders are processed daily. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-480 dumps
The application must:
Display the number of orders processed and the number of orders remaining Update the display for every 25th record processed
You need to develop the application to meet these requirements.
Which line of code should you insert at line 04?
A. if (!(counter % 25))
B. if (counter == 25)
C. if (counter >> 25 == 0)
D. if (counter << 25 == 0) Correct Answer: A Explanation: % (Modulus) Computes the integer remainder of dividing 2 numbers. Incorrect: >> (Sign-propagating right shift) Shifts the first operand in binary representation the number of bits to the right specified in the second operand, discarding bits shifted off.
<< (Left shift) Shifts its first operand in binary representation the number of bits to the left specified in the second operand, shifting in zeros from the right.

QUESTION 18
You develop an HTML5 webpage. You have the following HTML markup:
70-480 dumps
You need to change the background color for all of the elements whose name attribute ends with the word name.
Which code segment should you add to the webpage?
A. $ (‘input [name!=”name”]’) .css ({ ‘background-color’ : ‘ #E0ECF8’}) ;
B. ${‘input [name=”~name”] ‘) .css ({ ‘background-color’ : ‘ #E0ECF8’ }) ;
C. ${‘input[name=”*name”]’).css({‘background=color’: #E0ECF8′});
D. $( ‘input [name=”$name”] ‘) .css ({ ‘background-color’ : ‘#E0ECF8’});
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The string pattern “*name” matches all strings that ends with name.

QUESTION 19
You are developing an e-commerce website. Users place products into a shopping cart.
You need to ensure that the shopping cart data is available between browser sessions.
Which object should you use to store the shopping cart data?
A. clientStorage
B. localStorage
C. applicationStorage
D. sessionStorage
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
With local storage, web applications can store data locally within the user’s browser.
HTML local storage, better than cookies.
Before HTML5, application data had to be stored in cookies, included in every server request. Local storage is more secure, and large amounts of data can be stored locally, without affecting website performance.

QUESTION 20
You develop an HTML5 application that interacts with a REST service. The REST service accepts JSON data. A JavaScript object named form Data contains data that is sent to the REST service.
You need to convert the JavaScript object named formData into JSON.
Which code segment should you use?
A. jQuery.ajax.valueOf(formData);
B. window.evai(formData);
C. JSON.stringify (formData);
D. formData.toString();
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
JSON.stringify converts a JavaScript value to a JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) string.

QUESTION 21
You have the following HTML markup.
70-480 dumps
For all of the fields that have names ending with the letter x, you need to set the value to value1.
Which code line should you use?
70-480 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
You are developing an HTML5 web application. The application loads data from a web service by using AJAX. The application displays the data by calling the displayData function. The data is loaded by using the following code.
70-480 dumps
You need to ensure that the data is displayed when it is successfully retrieved from the web service.
Which code segment should you use? 70-480 dumps
70-480 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The deferred.done() method accepts one or more arguments, all of which can be either a single function or an array of functions. When the Deferred is resolved, the doneCallbacks are called. Callbacks are executed in the order they were added. Since deferred.done() returns the deferred object, other methods of the deferred object can be chained to this one, including additional .done() methods.

QUESTION 23
You are styling the following DIV tag on a page by using CSS3.
70-480 dumps
You need to set the transparency of the object to 50%.
Which two CSS3 styles will achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
70-480 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
You are developing a web page that performs CPU-intensive calculations. A web worker processes these calculations on a separate background thread. The process is instantiated from the web page.
You need to stop the web worker process after the calculations are completed.
Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. From the web page, call the close() method.
B. From the web worker process, call the terminate() method.
C. From the web page, call the terminate() method.
D. From the web worker process, call the close() method.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
Terminating a worker
If you need to immediately terminate a running worker, you can do so by calling the worker’s terminate() method:
myWorker.terminate();
The worker thread is killed immediately without an opportunity to complete its operations or clean up after itself.
Workers may close themselves by calling their own close method:
close();

QUESTION 25
Your company uses a third-party component that generates HTML for a website. The third- party component creates DIV elements that display a yellow background.
The third-party component uses inline styles in the DIV elements that are inconsistent with your corporate standards. You must override the DIV elements in the style sheet with the corporate styles.
You need to ensure that the website meets corporate standards.
Which style should you use?
70-480 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
CSS attempts to create a balance of power between author and user style sheets. By default, rules in an author’s style sheet override those in a user’s style sheet.
However, for balance, an “!important” declaration (the delimiter token “!” and keyword “important” follow the declaration) takes precedence over a normal declaration. Both author and user style sheets may contain “!important” declarations, and user “!important” rules override author “!important” rules. This CSS feature improves accessibility of documents by giving users with special requirements (large fonts, color combinations, etc.) control over presentation.

QUESTION 26
You have a webpage that includes the following markup and code:
70-480 dumps
You need to troubleshoot the code by clicking the Submit button.
Which value will be displayed?
A. 10
B. 20
C. Undefined
D. Runtime error
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
* The outermost assignment, counter = 10; will decide the output that is displayed.
* Local variables have local scope: They can only be accessed within the function.
Example
// code here can not use carName
function myFunction() {
var carName = “Volvo”;
// code here can use carName
}
* A variable declared outside a function, becomes GLOBAL. A global variable has global scope: All scripts and functions on a web page can access it.
Example
var carName = ” Volvo”;
// code here can use carName
function myFunction() {
// code here can usecarName
}

QUESTION 27
Which CSS3 code fragment uses a pseudo-element?
A. p: : first-letter {font-weight: bold;}
B. div>p {font-weight: bold;}
C. p. first-letter {font-weight: bold;}
D. div+p {font-weight: bold;}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
You need to parse an XML formatted string.
Which object should you use?
A. Map
B. DataView
C. DOMParser
D. JSON
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
You create the following JavaScript code:
70-480 dumps
You have the following requirements:
You must invoke a function that displays the vehicle information within the following HTML element: <div id=”display”x/div>
The output of the function must appear on the webpage as follows: Vehicle Color is silverStay safe!Vehicle TransmissionType is manualBig machine!
You need to invoke the JavaScript function to display the required output in the HTML element.
Which two code segments should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
70-480 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
The second argument should be ‘silver’. The third argument should be a number less than 4.

QUESTION 30
You are developing an application in HTML5. 70-480 dumps
You have the following code.
70-480 dumps
You need to add an additional property to the function definition.
Which line of code should you use?
A. NewOrder [“newProperty”] = “newProperty”
B. NewOrder. prototype. newProperty = “newProperty”
C. this.NewOrder. newProperty = “newProperty”
D. NewOrder. newProperty = “newProperty”
Correct Answer: C

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High Quality Microsoft MCSD 70-357 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q10)

QUESTION 1
You have an app that includes the following method:
70-357 dumps
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
70-357 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-357 dumps
Box 1: No
When neither DesiredAccuracyInMeters nor DesiredAccuracy are set, your app will use an accuracy setting of 500 meters (which corresponds to the DesiredAccuracy setting of Default). Setting DesiredAccuracy to Default or High indirectly sets DesiredAccuracyInMeters to 500 or 10 meters, respectively.
Box 2: No
The Default value should be used to optimize for power, performance, and other cost considerations.
The High value should be used to deliver the most accurate report possible. This includes using services that might charge money, or consuming higher levels of battery power or connection bandwidth. An accuracy level of High may degrade system performance and should be used only when necessary.

QUESTION 2
You must create a control that meets the following requirements:
• allows you to extend the behavior of a combo box allows the arrow image is located at the right edge of a standard control to be replaced with a new image
• has a property that sets and returns the image
•has a visual interface of the control that is defined by using XAML
•defines the properties for the control in code
You need to create the control.
Which object should you use?
A. ContentDialog
B. StaticResource
C. ThemeResource
D. UserControl
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
ContentDialog represents a dialog box that can be customized to contain checkboxes, hyperlinks, buttons and any other XAML content.

QUESTION 3
You are developing a Universal Windows Platform (UWP) app that processes and displays data from your company’s personnel database.
Users report that one of the views in the UWP app loads slowly.
You need to optimize the load time.
How should you complete the relevant markup? To answer, select the appropriate markup segment from each list in the answer area.
70-357 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-357 dumps
Explanation:
70-357 dumps
The {x:Bind} markup extension—new for Windows 10—is an alternative to {Binding}.
{x:Bind} lacks some of the features of {Binding}, but it runs in less time and less memory than {Binding} and supports better debugging.
In the following example, the background and foreground of the item are bound to functions to do conversion based on the color parameter
<DataTemplate x:DataType=”local:ColorEntry”>
<Grid Background=”{x:Bind Brushify(Color)}” Width=”240″>
<TextBlock Text=”{x:Bind ColorName}” Foreground=”{x:Bind TextColor(Color)}” Margin=”10,5″ />
</Grid>
</DataTemplate>

QUESTION 4
You are developing a Universal Windows Platform (UWP) app.
The app does not display content properly on mobile devices.
You need to support smaller window sizes. 70-357 dumps
How should you complete the relevant XAML markup? To answer, select the appropriate markup segment from each list in the answer area.
70-357 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-357 dumps
Explanation:
70-357 dumps
One of the tools that Microsoft gives us for building adaptive UIs in UWP apps is state triggers. The version of Windows 10 released at BUILD 2015 features one state trigger: a class named AdaptiveTrigger. AdaptiveTrigger has two important properties:
MinWindowWidth and MinWindowHeight. You use AdaptiveTrigger in conjunction with Visual State Manager to adapt the UI to screens and windows of various sizes.
* Inline
The pane is always visible and doesn’t overlay the content area. The pane and content areas divide the available screen real estate.
* CompactInline
A narrow portion of the pane is always visible in this mode, which is just wide enough to show icons. The default closed pane width is 48px, which can be modified with CompactPaneLength. If the pane is opened, it will reduce the space available for content, pushing the content out of its way.

QUESTION 5
You are developing a Universal Windows Platform (UWP) a pp.
The app has the following requirements:
. Users must be able to authenticate with the app by using a third-party OAuth provider.
. Users must have the option of using Single Sign-On.
You obtain the security identifier (SID) for the app from the Windows Dev Center.
You need to implement authentication for the app.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
70-357 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-357 dumps
Explanation:
70-357 dumps
Step 1: Register your app with your online provider
You must register your app with the online identity provider to which you want to connect.
You can find out how to register your app from the identity provider. After registering, the online provider typically gives you an Id or secret key for your app.
Step 2: Build the authentication request URI
The request URI consists of the address where you send the authentication request to your online provider appended with other required information, such as an app ID or secret, a redirect URI where the user is sent after completing authentication, and the expected response type. You can find out from your provider what parameters are required.
Step 3-4: Connect to the online provider
You call the AuthenticateAsync method to connect to the online identity provider and get an access token. The method takes the URI constructed in the previous step as the requestUri parameter, and a URI to which you want the user to be redirected as the callbackUri parameter.
Note: Step 5: Connecting with single sign-on (SSO).
By default, Web authentication broker does not allow cookies to persist. Because of this, even if the app user indicates that they want to stay logged in (for example, by selecting a check box in the provider’s login dialog), they will have to login each time they want to access resources for that provider. To login with SSO, your online identity provider must have enabled SSO for Web authentication broker, and your app must call the overload of AuthenticateAsync that does not take a callbackUri parameter. This will allow persisted cookies to be stored by the web authentication broker, so that future authentication calls by the same app will not require repeated sign-in by the user (the user is effectively “logged in” until the access token expires).

QUESTION 6
Note: This question it part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You are developing a Universal Windows Platform (UWP) app.
Your app stores files on a user’s device.
You need to be able to replace the existing files with new files generated by the user.
Solution you run the StoragaFile.GetParentAsync method to get a reference to the existing file. Then, you run the StorageFile.CreateStreamedFileAsyne method to create the- new file at that same location.
Does this meet the goal?
A. yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The GetParentAsync() method gets the parent folder of the current file.
The CreateStreamedFileAsync method can be used to create a StorageFile that can be passed to other methods or passed to another app through app contracts.

QUESTION 7
You are developing a Universal Windows Platform (UWP) app.
You need to implement responsive user design patterns.
Which of the following techniques are supported? To answer, select the appropriate option from each list in the answer area.
70-357 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-357 dumps
Explanation:
70-357 dumps
Responsive design techniques
When you optimize your app’s UI for specific screen widths, we say that you’re creating a responsive design. Here are six responsive design techniques you can use to customize your app’s UI.
* Reposition
You can alter the location and position of app UI elements to get the most out of each device
* Resize
You can optimize the frame size by adjusting the margins and size of UI elements.
* Reflow
By changing the flow of UI elements based on device and orientation, your app can offer an optimal display of content-
* Show/hide
You can show or hide UI elements based on screen real estate, or when the device supports additional functionality, specific situations, or preferred screen orientations.
* Replace
This technique lets you switch the user interface for a specific device size-class or orientation. In this example, the nav pane and its compact, transient UI works well for a smaller device, but on a larger device tabs might be a better choice.
* Re-architect
You can collapse or fork the architecture of your app to better target specific devices.

QUESTION 8
You are developing a Universal Windows Platform (UWP) app that uses XAML and C#.
The app must use the Model-View-ViewModel (MVVM) pattern.
The user interface (UI) triggers an event.
You need to bind the event to a view model method.
What should you do?
A. Create a custom behavior and attach the behavior to the UI element. Bind the behavior’s event trigger to the command declared in the view model.
B. Create an attached property of type ICommand. Bind the UI element’s event to the attached property.
C. Assign the value of the DataContext property to the view model. Use the BindingExression.UpdateSource() method to update the data source.
D. Add a strongly-typed view model property to the view. In the code behind file for the view, invoke the view model method.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Commands are an implementation of the ICommand interface that is part of the .NET Framework. This interface is used a lot in MVVM applications.

QUESTION 9
You are designing a roadside assistance mobile app. The app displays a persistent list of links to pages. The app displays a persistent list of links to pages. The pages provide a quick way to move between different views of the a pp.
You need to recommend a user interface pattern that meets the following requirements:
• Allow users to navigate to frequently accessed, distinct content categories,
• Provide two or more content pones that have corresponding category headers.
• Display the navigation controls on the top of the screen.
• Highlight the currently selected navigation control.
Which pattern should you recommend?
A. hub
B. tabs and pivots
C. active canvas
D. master/details
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Pivot control and related tabs pattern are used for navigating frequently accessed, distinct content categories. Pivots allow for navigation between two or more content panes and relies on text headers to articulate the different sections of content. 70-357 dumps Tabs are a visual variant of Pivot that use a combination of icons and text or just icons to articulate section content. Tabs are built using the Pivot control.

QUESTION 10
You are developing a Universal Windows Platform (UWP) app by using XAML and C#. A team member has written a XAML page that includes a button with an event handler method named ButtonSendNotification_Click() registered to the Click event.
You are reviewing the following code segment written by the team member (line numbers are added for reference only):
70-357 dumps
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each selection is worth one point.
70-357 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-357 dumps

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