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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 3
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches? 200-105 dumps
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: D,F

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, 200-105 dumps what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Correct Answer: C,F

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? 200-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 12
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: A,C,E

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about static routing are true? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 6
Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
A. It can send a specific number of packet
B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address
C. It can resolve the destination host name
D. It can ping multiple host at the same time
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 8
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router? 200-125 dumps
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
200-125 dumps
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. 200-125 dumps From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Business Intelligence
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-461
Total Questions: 164 Q&As
070-461 dumps
QUESTION 1
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database is used by two web applications that access a table named Products.
You want to create an object that will prevent the applications from accessing the table directly while still providing access to the required data.
You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
Future modifications to the table definition will not affect the applications’ ability to access data.
The new object can accommodate data retrieval and data modification.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of changes to the existing applications.
What should you create for each application?
A. views
B. table partitions
C. table-valued functions
D. stored procedures
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named OrderDetail. You discover that the NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID non-clustered index is fragmented. 70-461 dumps You need to reduce fragmentation.
You need to achieve this goal without taking the index offline. Which Transact-SQL batch should you use?
A. CREATE INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID WITH
DROP
EXISTING
B. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID
REORGANIZE
C. ALTER INDEX ALL ON OrderDetail REBUILD
D. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REBUILD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects.
You create the Airline_Schedules table.
You need to store the departure and arrival dates and times of flights along with time zone information.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: I

QUESTION 4
You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You need to create a batch process that meets the following requirements:
Returns a result set based on supplied parameters.
Enables the returned result set to perform a join with a table.
Which object should you use?
A. Inline user-defined function
B. Stored procedure
C. Table-valued user-defined function
D. Scalar user-defined function
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition. 70-461 dumps
070-461 dumps
You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the stored procedure with multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Customers and Orders.
The tables are related by a column named CustomerID.
You need to create a query that meets the following requirements:
Returns the CustomerName for all customers and the OrderDate for any orders that they have placed.
Results must include customers who have not placed any orders.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
RIGHT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
B. SELECT CustomerName, CrderDate
FROM Customers
JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
C. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
CROSS JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
D. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored procedure?
A. SET XACT_ABORT ON
B. SET ARITHABORT ON
C. TRY
D. BEGIN
E. SET ARITHABORT OFF
F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one another. 70-461 dumps
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are helping your Partner Sales Representatives understand what marketing tools are available to help them acquire new accounts.Which two weapons/resources can you direct them to for account acquisition? (Choose two)
A.Cisco Partner Marketing Demand Generation tools like “Go -Generating Opportunities”
B.Vertical Handbooks
C.Cisco Partner Marketing Central
D.Smart Business Roadmaps
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install a new client-server application named App1 on Server1 and on the client computers.
The client computers must use TCP port 6444 to connect to App1 on Server1. Server1 publishes the information of App1 to an intranet server named Server2 by using TCP port 3080. You need to ensure that all of the client computers can connect to App1. The solution must ensure that the application can connect to Server2.
Which Windows Firewall rule should you create on Server1?
A. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
B. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
C. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
D. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about how to determine if a project return on investment is acceptable to your customer are true? (Choose two) 70-410 dumps
A.Compare the Internal Rate of Return of the project against the customer Internal Rate of Return
B.The customer agrees that the identified solution meets their business requirements
C.Check that our Return on Investment is better than that of the competition.
D.It is too complex to assess a project return on investment
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 4
At which stage of the sales process should you offer a demo of Cisco solutions?
A.Prospecting
B.Qualifying
C.Proposing
D.Agreement
E.Closing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an active directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DCS. DCS has a server core installation of windows server 2012. You need to uninstall Active Directory from DCS manually. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-WindowsFeature cmdlet
B. the dsamain.exe command
C. the ntdsutil.exe command
D. the Remove-ADComputer cmdlet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is Value Based Negotiation?
A.Negotiating based on price
B.Negotiating based on the competition price
C.Negotiating around the value the solution will deliver
D.Negotiating with Senior Management within the client
Correct Answer: C
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 7
How many distinct stages are in the typical selling process? 70-410 dumps
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that hosts the primary DNS zone for contoso.com. All client computers are configured to use DC1 as the primary DNS server. You need to configure DC1 to resolve any DNS requests that are not for the contoso.com zone by querying the DNS server of your Internet Service Provider (ISP).
What should you configure?
A. Name server (NS) records
B. Condition& forwarders
C. Forwarders
D. Naming Authority Pointer (NAPTR) DNS resource records (RR)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors.
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You work as an administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com domain, 70-410 dumps including domain controllers, have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. ABC.com’s user accounts are located in an organizational unit (OU), named ABCStaff.
ABC.com’s managersbelong to a group, named ABCManagers. You have been instructed to create a new Group Policy object (GPO) that should be linked to the ABCStaffOU, but not affect ABC.com’s managers.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider removing the user accounts of the managers from the ABCStaff OU.
B. You should consider configuring the new GPO’s WMI filter.
C. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the Admins group.
D. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the localAdministrators group.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Exam Code: 70-696
Total Questions: 86 Q&As
70-696 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network includes Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. Each Hyper-V server runs multiple virtual machines (VMs). You need to detect performance issues and generate an alert when Hyper-V server load exceeds specific thresholds. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft System Center Capacity Planner 2007
B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007 R2
C. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007 R2
D. Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2008 R2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate security policy requirements. 70-696 pdf What should you do first?
A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are designing a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V environment. You need to be able to dynamically add new storage to Windows virtual machines (VMs). 70-696 dumps What should you do?
A. Use fixed virtual hard disks (VHDs).
B. Install Hyper-V Integration Services on the VMs.
C. Install the VMs in Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs).
D. Use dynamically expanding virtual hard disks (VHDs).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are designing a Hyper-V solution. You plan to virtualize an application server. The application server requires failover clustering that uses shared storage. You need to choose the correct storage solution. What should you choose?
A. two child partitions with VHDs stored on an iSCSI SAN
B. two child partitions with volumes mounted from an iSCSI SAN
C. two host servers with iSCSI-attached storage enabled for Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs)
D. two host servers with Fibre Channelattached storage enabled for Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the application requirements of App4.
What should you do first?
A. Create a Mobile Device Security Policy.
B. Upload App4 to Windows Intune.
C. Set the Mobile Devices Management Authority.
D. Install the Windows Intune client software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that contains the objects shown in the following table.
70-696 dumps
You are creating a new configuration baseline.
You need to identify which objects you can use as evaluation conditions within the new configuration baseline.
Which three objects should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Object1
B. Object2
C. Object3
D. Object4
E. Object5
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 7
You need to prepare Server11. 70-696 pdf
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a file named No_sms_on_drive in the root of drive C.
B. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to Automatic.
C. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary content location to E.
D. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to E.
E. Copy Prepdrv.inf to the root of drive C.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are planning to deploy two Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. You need to design the storage of VHD files for maximum security. 70-696 dumps What should you do?
A. Store the VHD files on a dedicated NTFS volume.
B. Store unencrypted VHD files on a volume that uses Windows BitLocker drive encryption.
C. Store unencrypted VHD files on a volume that uses Encrypted File System (EFS).
D. Store the VHD files on a dedicated Dynamic NTFS Volume.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed.
Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer.
You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues.
You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation.
Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF

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QUESTION 1
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Clear the EIGRP process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? 400-151 pdf (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
B. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
Correct Answer: CD
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which two mechanisms provide Cisco IOS XE Software with control plane and data plane separation? 400-151 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding and Feature Manager
B. Forwarding Engine Driver
C. Forwarding Performance Management
D. Forwarding Information Base
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 5
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market?
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two options does the sales force need to know to ensure business outcome plan is aligned with stakeholders’ needs? (Choose two.)
A. The stakeholders’ agenda about the business goals.
B. The stakeholders interest in results which you are seeking to drive.
C. The stakeholders’ chain of command.
D. The stakeholders’ degree of influence and power.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts? 400-151 pdf
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
According to RFC 4577, OSPF for BGP/MPLS IP VPNs, when must the down bit be set?
A. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 LSAs
B. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 5 LSAs
C. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs
D. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for all types of LSAs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two options are two characteristics of the HSRPv6 protocol? 400-151 dumps (Choose two.)
A. It uses virtual MAC addresses 0005.73a0.0000 through 0005.73a0.0fff.
B. It uses UDP port number 2029.
C. It uses virtual MAC addresses 0005.73a0.0000 through 0005.73a0.ffff.
D. It uses UDP port number 2920.
E. If a link local IPv6 address is used, it must have a prefix.
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
A service provider is running a single area OSPFv2 instance in the MPLS network. The OSPF re-convergence time is becoming excessively slow as the service provider MPLS network grows. Which two action can improve network performance without implementing a multi area design? (Choose two).
A. Configure incremental SFP
B. Reduce type 5 LSAs
C. Implement Partial Route Computation
D. Limit number of TVLs
E. Enable LSA group pacing
Correct Answer: A,E

QUESTION 2
A content provider uses ISP-A and ISP-B for internet transit service for the purpose of redundancy and load balancing. The content provider has address range assigned to it. 400-201 pdf
Which two techniques achieve the load balancing and redundancy for inbound traffic? (Choose Two)
A. Use ISP-A for outbound traffic and ISP-B for inbound traffic.
B. Aggregate all prefixes received from both ISPs into a less-specific prefix.
C. BGP MED attribute.
D. Address range split into two more specific prefixes, then advertise one specific prefix per ISP.
E. BGP AS-prepend technique
F. BGP Local Preference attribute.
Correct Answer: C,E

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The Service Provider does not have IPv6 support in the core, however it does have MPLS support. Customer requires IPv6 connectivity in all sites including Internet access. 400-201 dumps Without a requirement to create VRF, which method is preferred to support IPv6 traffic between these sites?
400-201 dumps
A. 6VPE
B. H-VPLS
C. L2TPv3
D. VPLS
E. 6CE
F. 6PE
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 4
In MPLS-enabled network, 400-201 dumps which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to traditional VPLS?
A. Use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
B. Per flow load balancing
C. Optimized learning and flooding process
D. Leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. No need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
F. Use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 5
In a virtualization concept, which is one of the characteristic of the HVR solution?
A. introduces significant contention of resources
B. implements shared control plane resources
C. implements dedicated chassis resources
D. implements dedicated data plane resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Two OSPF neighborrouters are stuck in the EXSTART state. After a while, the neighborship goes down. A network engineer is debugging the issue when both routers show the OSPF log message “too many retransmissions.” What is the possible root cause?
A. OSPF area mismatch
B. OSPF hello-interval mismatch
C. interface MTU mismatch
D. interface network type mismatch
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A Service Provider wants to extend MPLS WAN endpoints in the cloud at the edge of a customer network within the cloud. Which platform will meet this requirement? 400-201 pdf
A. Cisco NX-OS
B. Cisco CSR1000v
C. Cisco ISR Routers running IOS
D. Cisco CRS-1
E. Cisco ASR Routers running IOS-XR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which information is carried in the OSPFv3 intra-area Prefix LSA?
A. All link-local addresses
B. All IPv6 prefix and topology information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA
C. List of options associated with the link to all other routers attached to the link
D. All prefix-specific information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer is deploying SSHv2 only in band access. 400-201 dumps Which three options reflect the minimum configuration to enable the SSHv2 services on Cisco routers? (Choose three)
A. Add router hostname on DNS services.
B. Define a hostname for the device.
C. Define a domain name for the device.
D. Create an access list that defines authorized hosts for SSH.
E. Create crypto keys by using the crypto key generate dsa command.
F. Configure a key modulus in the global configuration.
Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about the bgp deterministic-med and bgp always-compare-med commands are true? (Choose two)
A. The bgp deterministic-med command is used to influence the BGP route selection process to cause the MED attribute to have higher precedence over the AS path length.
B. The bgp always-compare command is used to influence the BGP route selection process to cause the MED attribute to have higher precedence over the AS path system.
C. Enabling the bgp deterministic-med command ensures the comparison of the MED variable when choosing routes advertised by different peers in the same autonomous system.
D. Enabling the bgp always-compare-med command ensures the comparison of the MED variable for paths from neighbors in different autonomous systems.
E. The bgp deterministic-med and bgp always-compare-med commands are enabled by defult.
Correct Answer: C,D

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Question No : 1
You are installing SQL Server Data Quality Services (DQS).
You need to give users belonging to a specific Active Directory group access to the Data Quality Server.
Which SQL Server application should you use?
A. Data Quality Client with administrative credentials
B. SQL Server Configuration Manager with local administrative credentials
C. SQL Server Data Tools with local administrative permissions
D. SQL Server Management Studio with administrative credentials
Correct Answer: D

Question No : 2
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data into a data warehouse. You add an Execute SQL task to the control flow.
The task must execute a simple INSERT statement. 070-463 pdf The task has the following requirements:
The INSERT statement must use the value of a string package variable. The variable name is StringVar.
The Execute SQL task must use an OLE DB Connection Manager.
In the Parameter Mapping tab of the Execute SQL task, StringVar has been added as the only parameter.
You must configure the SQLStatement property of the Execute SQL task.
Which SQL statement should you use?
A. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES ($StringVar)
B. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (0)
C. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (@0)
D. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (?)
Correct Answer: D

Question No : 3
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses custom functionality that accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ).
You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time.
What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? 070-463 dumps (To answer, drag the appropriate item to the correct location in the answer area.)
070-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-463 dumps
Question No : 4
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD).
You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic.
What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Correct Answer: D

Question No : 5
You are installing the Data Quality Client on user desktops.
You need to ensure that the prerequisite software components are installed.
Which components must be present to meet this goal? 070-463 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SQL Server Management Studio
B. Internet Explorer 6.0 SP1 or later
C. Microsoft Silverlight 5
D. .NET Framework 3.5 SP1
E. .NET Framework 4.0
F. Microsoft Silverlight 4
G. SQL Server Data Tools
Correct Answer: B,E

Question No : 6
You are completing the installation of the Data Quality Server component of SQL Server Data Quality Services (DQS).
You need to complete the post-installation configuration.
What should you do?
A. Run the DQSInstaller.exe command.
B. Install the data providers that are used for data refresh.
C. Install ADOMD.NET.
D. Run the dbimpexp.exe command.
Correct Answer: A

Question No : 7
You are creating a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model for a company.
The source data for the company is stored in a single table that contains the manager-tosubordinate relationships.
You need to create a hierarchy representing the organizational structure of the company.
Which hierarchy type should you use?
A. Organizational
B. Recursive
C. Non-Mandatory Explicit
D. Many-to-Many
Correct Answer: B

Question No : 8
You are the data steward for a Business Intelligence project.
You must identify duplicate rows stored in a SQL Server table and output discoveries to a CSV file. A Data Quality Services (DQS) knowledge base has been created to support this project. 070-463 pdf
You need to produce the CSV file with the least amount of development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an Integration Services package and use a Data Profiling transform.
B. Create a custom .NET application based on the Knowledgebase class.
C. Create a data quality project.
D. Create a CLR stored procedure based on the Knowledgebase class.
E. Create a Master Data Services (MDS) business rule.
Correct Answer: C

Question No : 9
You manage a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) environment.
A new application requires access to the product data that is available in the MDS repository.
You need to design a solution that gives the application access to the product data with the least amount of development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a Subscription View in MDS.
B. Access the product entity tables in the MDS database directly.
C. Use SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) to extract the data and put it in a staging database.
D. Use change data capture on the product entity tables.
Correct Answer: A

Question No : 10
You are using the Knowledge Discovery feature of the Data Quality Services (DQS) client application to modify an existing knowledge base. 070-463 dumps
In the mapping configuration, two of the three columns are mapped to existing domains in the knowledge base. The third column, named Team Type, does not yet have a domain.
You need to complete the mapping of the Team Type column.
What should you do?
A. Add a column mapping for the Team Type column.
B. Map a composite domain to the source column.
C. Create a composite domain that includes the Team Type column.
D. Add a domain for the Team Type column.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which option is an open and extensible southbound protocol that supplies policy directly to data center networks?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. VM-FEX
D. OpenDaylight
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.) 210-451 pdf
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.
B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB
210-451 dumps
QUESTION 4           210-451 dumps
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. LXD
C. Docker
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.) 210-451 pdf
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.) 210-451 dumps
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol?
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring a template in CloudSense Report Builder. 210-451 pdf Which three reports are available? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual Data Center
B. Global Account
C. Cloud
D. Physical Account
E. Global User
F. Virtual Account
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 12
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which objects are exposed when integrating with Cisco UCS Director?
A. catalogs
B. tasks
C. public clouds
D. hybrid clouds
Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Following a disaster, an engineer must configure a database restoration using Cisco UCS Director. Which kind of backup should be used?
A. FULL state
B. system configuration
C. all configuration
D. logical configuration
Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which two features are available in the Cisco UCS Director chargeback module? 210-451 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Reusable Cost Models
B. Top 10 Reports
C. Dashboard
D. Quotas and Limits
E. Universal Compatibility
Answer: A,C

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and corp.contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and are configured as global catalog servers. The corp.contoso.com domain contains a domain controller named DC1. You need to disable the global catalog on DC1. What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
B. From Active Directory Administrative Center, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
C. From Active Directory Sites and Services, modify the NTDS Settings of the DC1 server object.
D. From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, modify the properties of the corp.contoso.com domain.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. All servers runs Windows Server 2012 R2.The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. Both domain controllers are virtual machines on a HyperV host. 070-410 pdf You plan to create a cloned domain controller named DC3 from an image of DC1. You need to ensure that you can clone DC1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Add the computer account of DC1 to the Cloneable Domain Controllers group.
B. Create a DCCIoneConfig.xml file on DC1.
C. Add the computer account of DC3 to the Cloneable Domain Controllers group.
D. Run the Enable-AdOptionalFeaturecmdlet.
E. Modify the contents of the DefaultDCCIoneAllowList.xml file on DC1.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-410 dumps A one-way external trust exists between contoso.com and adatum.com. Adatum.com contains a universal group named Group1. You need to prevent Group1 from being used to provide access to the resources in contoso.com. What should you do?
A. Change the scope of Group1 to domain local.
B. Modify the Allowed to Authenticate permissions in adatum.com.
C. Enable SID quarantine on the trust between contoso.com and adatum.com.
D. Modify the Allowed to Authenticate permissions in contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B
070-410 dumps
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You log on to Server1. You need to retrieve a list of the active TCP connections on Server2. Which command should you run from Server1?
A. winrm get server2
B. dsquery * -scope base -attrip,server2
C. winrs -r:server2netstat
D. netstat> server2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 user accounts that reside in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can link and unlink Group Policy objects (GPOs) to 0U1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. What should you do?
A. Add User1 to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
B. Run the Set-GPPermissioncmdiet.
C. Modify the permission on the \\Contoso.com\SYSVOL\Contoso.com\Policies folder.
D. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on OU1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You need to provide users with the ability to manage print jobs on Server1 by using a web browser. 70-410 dumps
What should you do?
A. Start the Computer Browser service and set the service to start automatically.
B. Install the LPD Service role service.
C. Install the Internet Printing role service.
D. Start the Printer Extensions and Notifications service and set the service to start automatically.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Your company hires 500 temporary employees for the summer. The human resources department gives you a Microsoft Excel document that contains a list of the temporary employees. You need to automate the creation of user accounts for the 500 temporary employees. Which tool or tools should you use?
A. The Set-ADUsercmdlet and the Add-Member cmdlet
B. The Import-CSV cmdlet and the New-ADUsercmdlet
C. ADSI Edit
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role installed. 070-410 pdf You need to create an IPv6 reservation for Server2. Which two values should you obtain from Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the hardware ID
B. the DHCPv6 unique identifier
C. the DHCPv6 identity association ID
D. the SMSBIOS GUID
E. the MAC address
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create a shared folder. The shared folder will have a quota limit. You discover that when you run the New Share Wizard, you cannot select the SMB Share Advanced option. You need to ensure that you can use SMB Share – Advanced to create the new share. What should you do on Server1 before you run the New Share Wizard?
A. Configure the Advanced system settings.
B. Run the Install-WindowsFeaturecmdlet.
C. Run the Set-SmbSharecmdlet.
D. Install the Share and Storage Management tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. 70-410 dumps You are currently discussing the Always Offline Mode.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Always Offline Mode? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It allows for swifter access to cached files and redirected folders.
B. To enable Always Offline Mode, you have to satisfy the forest and domain functional-level requirements, as well as schema requirements.
C. It allows for lower bandwidth usage due to users are always working offline.
D. To enable Always Offline Mode, you must have workstations running Windows 7 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
Correct Answer: AC

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