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[High Quality Exam Dumps] CompTIA A+ 220-802 Dumps Real Exam Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo

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220-802 dumps
QUESTION 1
A user receives a phone call from a person claiming to be from technical support. This person knows the user\’s name and that the user has Windows installed on their computer. The technician directs the user to open Event Viewer and look at some event log entries to demonstrate the effects of a virus on the computer. The technician also asks the user for their user ID and password so that they can clean the computer. This is an example of which of the following security threats?
A. Social engineering
B. Phishing
C. Malware
D. Virus
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following storage types would be MOST resilient to physical drops and damage within a laptop?
A. SAS HDD
B. HDD
C. RAID HDD
D. SSD
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Joe, a technician, has been tasked to verify a new device has been installed and correctly configured on a Windows 7 computer. He has now confirmed the new device is not working properly. Upon opening the Device Manager, he seesseveral icons. Which of the following should Joe do FIRST to help troubleshoot the problem?
A. Upgrade the antivirus signatures and disable system restore
B. Check any items with yellow exclamation points
C. Check any items with green checkmarks
D. Disable items with a red X over the icon
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is unique to Windows XP? 220-802 dumps
A. Folder options – Layout
B. Hardware profiles
C. Pen and input devices
D. Network setup wizard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A technician is working on an issue and has identified the problem and worked out the cause. Which of the following would MOST likely be the NEXT step the technician should make?
A. Document the cause and solution
B. Inform the user
C. Report to the supervisor
D. Establish a plan of action
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A small business owner is setting up their wireless network in their office, which is in a building shared with several other businesses. The owner does not want to disable the SSID broadcasting due to visiting customers needing to use the network, but does not want other businesses to notice the network, let alone access it. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this?
A. Configure the access point encryption from unsecured access to WEP.
B. Adjust the radio power so that coverage is restricted to the business.
C. Change the SSID to reflect the business name instead of a public access point.
D. Enable MAC filtering and restrict access to other company\’s devices.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A technician is having issues with a corporate wireless signal bleeding into nearby offices.
Which of the following techniques could be used to mitigate the risk of wireless attacks by third parties in the nearby offices?
A. Switch from 802.11b to 802.11g spectrums
B. Disable WEP-128 security
C. Radio power adjustment
D. Switch from 802.11g to 802.11n spectrums
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician has imaged Windows 7 to a new drive and installed it into the PC. The PC, however, will not boot the new disk. Using the recovery console, which of the following should the technician try NEXT?
A. Select the bootable partition in fdisk
B. Fix the master boot record with fdisk
C. Use the bootcfg /rebuild command to recreate the mbr
D. Mark the disk active in diskpart
E. Mark the partition as clean in diskpart
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A senior technician requests a diagnostic tool for checking external ports and connectors on computers and laptops. 220-802 dumps
Which of the following tools would BEST accomplish this task?
A. Wireless locator
B. Corona wire
C. Toner probe
D. Loopback plugs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Anne, an employee, stepped away from her workstation to deliver a report to her boss. When she came back, confidential material was displayed on the screen that was not opened prior to her leaving. Which of the following could have mitigated this from occurring?
A. Intrusion detection system
B. Screensaver password
C. Privacy filters
D. RFID badges
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A user receives an email seemingly from the director of the company\’s IT department. The user however notices that the content of the email is asking for information specifically forbidden to be shared with anyone. This type of interaction is known as which of the following?
A. Phishing
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Malware
D. Spyware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An administrator is asked to review a file on a local drive. The file contains what appear to be multiple conversations from emails, chat sessions, and various word processing files that were accessed during the past several days. Ann, the user, advises the administrator this was not a file she had created. The file is MOST likely created by which of the following?
A. Malware
B. Phishing
C. Social engineering
D. Keylogger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A user recently installed an application. Upon the next reboot, the system is displaying various errors relating to the system files and certain actions e.g. right-clicking no longer works. The user does not have time to reimage the computer, nor do they wish to remove and reinstall the application. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Open up the command prompt and type SFC /SCANNOW
B. Open Task Manager and stop all running SERVICES processes
C. Open up MSCONFIG and remove the application from the start-up tab
D. Open a command prompt and type REGSVR32 SYSMAIN.DLL U
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following should a technician implement to prevent external contractors from physically plugging devices into the company\’s network jacks unless such jacks are designated for guest use?
A. Disable DHCP and assign a static IP address to each network device physically connected to the network.
B. Enable MAC address filtering across all network jacks and record the MAC address of guest devices.
C. Disable all switch ports when they are not utilized and enable them on an as needed basis.
D. Place guest network jacks in public areas and all other jacks in secure areas as needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A PC is running slower than usual. 220-802 dumps Which of the following tools would BEST diagnose the possible bottleneck?
A. CHKDSK
B. Device Manager
C. Task Scheduler
D. Task Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
From which of the following tools can a technician locate the PID of an application?
A. Local Security Policy
B. MSCONFIG
C. Computer Management
D. Task Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A user states when they press certain letters on their laptop\’s keyboard, a number is displayed on the screen. Which of the following can the technician perform to resolve this issue?
A. Change the character mapping
B. Turn off number lock
C. Replace the keyboard
D. Update the keyboard drivers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the following would be the BEST way to combat social engineering?
A. User education
B. Deny social networks through the firewall
C. Badges
D. Strong password usage
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
When cutting back the protective coating on CAT5 wiring, which of the following is the recommended tool?
A. Punchdown tool
B. Basic crimper
C. Wire strippers
D. Degausser
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A technician is tasked with improving the security of a SOHO network. The office is comprised of a single wireless router located under the front desk where the office manager sits. All desktop computers are wired into the router which is configured with strong device credentials. Additionally, wireless is disabled on the router. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT to improve the security of the SOHO network?
A. Disable the router\’s remote management feature.
B. Enable WPA2 wireless encryption.
C. Change the router\’s default admin name and password.
D. Place the router in a locked room.
Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft

[High Quality Exam Dumps] Microsoft SharePoint Applications 70-480 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo

admin December 13, 2017 0 Comments

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70-480 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are developing a web page for runners who register for a race. The page includes a slider control that allows users to enter their age.
You have the following requirements:
– All runners must enter their age.
– Applications must not be accepted from runners less than 18 years of age or greater than 90 years.
– The slider control must be set to the average age (37) of all registered runners when the page is first displayed.
You need to ensure that the slider control meets the requirements.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate word or number to the correct location in the answer area. Each word or number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-480 dumps
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s website. The page collects information about the customer.
If a customer enters a value before submitting the form, it must be a valid email address.
You need to ensure that the data validation requirement is met.
What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are developing a web page by using HTML5 and C5S3. The page includes a <div>tag with the ID set to validate.
When the page is rendered, the contents of the <div>tag appear on a line separate from the content above and below it.
The rendered page resembles the following graphic.
The page must be rendered so that the <div>tag is not forced to be separate from the other content. 70-480 dumps The following graphic shows the correctly rendered output.

You need to ensure that the page is rendered to meet the requirement.
Which line of code should you use?
A. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.display = “inline”;
B. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.margin = “0”;
C. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.padding = “0”;
D. document.getElementSyId(“validate”).style.display = “block”;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are developing an online shopping application that accepts credit cards for payment.
If the credit card number is invalid, the application must:
– Generate an error
– Assign “200” to the error number
– Assign “Invalid” to the error description
You need to write the code that meets the requirements.
How should you write the code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment or segments to the correct location in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5
You are developing a page that includes text and an illustration. 70-480 dumps The web page resembles the following image.

You have the following requirements:
1. The illustration must be in the center of the page.
2. The text must flow around the left, right, top, and bottom of the illustration.
You need to ensure that the layout of the web page meets the requirements.
Which line of code should you use?
A. -ms-wrap-side: both;
B. -ms-wrap-side: clear;
C. -ms-wrap-side: maximum;
D. -ms-wrap-side: auto;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You develop an HTML application that is located at www.adventure-works.com. The application must load JSON data from www.fabrikam.com.
You need to choose an approach for loading the data.
What should you do?
A. Add a crossdomain.xml file to the second server.
B. Configure Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) on the servers.
C. Load the data in a JavaScript timeout callback.
D. Reference the remote data as an XML resource.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are creating a rotating image of a company logo.
The logo must spin on a horizontal axis and on a vertical axis.
You need to use the least amount of development effort to meet the requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create an Image Spinner object, load the image into the spinner, and set the horizontal and vertical rotation properties.
B. Create a Canvas Globe transform and set the image as the globe object. Set the horizontal and vertical rotation properties.
C. Create a single Canvas 3D transform and load the image into it. Set the rotation properties.
D. Create a Canvas 2D transform and set the image to rotate horizontally and vertically.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are developing an HTML5 web application and are styling text.
You need to use the text-transform CSS property. 70-480 dumps
Which values are valid for the text-transform property?
A. hidden
B. blink
C. capitalize
D. line-through
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are developing an HTML5 page that includes several paragraph elements.
You have the following requirements:
– Add a drop shadow that is one inch below the text in the paragraph
– Set the radius of the drop shadow to five pixels
You need to style the paragraphs to meet the requirements.
Which CSS style should you use?
A. text-shadow: 72pt 0pt 5pt
B. text-shadow: 5px lin 0px;
C. text-shadow: 72pt 5em 0px
D. text-shadow: 72pt 0em 5px;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are developing a web application that consumes services from a third-party application. A web worker processes the third-party application requests in the background.
A page in the application instantiates the web worker process.
You need to establish two-way communications between the web worker process and the page.
Which two actions will achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. From the web worker, use the onconnect event handler of the main page to capture events.
B. From the main page, use the onmessage event handler of the web worker to capture events.
C. From the web worker, use the onmessage event handler of the main page to capture events.
D. From the main page, use the onconnect event handler of the web worker to capture events.
Correct Answer: B,C

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Microsoft

[High Quality Exam Dumps] Microsoft MCSD 70-488 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Free Shared

admin December 6, 2017 0 Comments

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070-488 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the CourierMobile app determines whether the franchisee owns the account.
What should you do?
A. Use OAuth and App only security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection/web/list scope URI.
B. Use OAuth and App+User security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection scope URI.
C. Use SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
D. Use the SharePoint user credentials of the bicycle messenger to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the courier’s microfeed.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 4
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm.
Which code segments should you implement? 70-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
070-488 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 5
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? 070-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
You need to create a custom sign-in page to allow the users of the FranchiseMonitor app to authenticate against SharePoint and Margie’s Travel API.
What should you do?
A. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
B. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
C. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
D. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need add to code at line IL22 to implement the task list design.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
You need to configure the credential store for the app.
Which properties should you configure? 070-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Pin
B. Windows Password
C. Windows User Name
D. Password
E. User Name
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the app to http://contoso-public.sharepoint.com.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Deploy the app to https://contoso.sharepoint.com/tasks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft

[High Quality Exam Dumps] Latest Microsoft MCSM 70-411 Dumps PDF Files And VCE Youtube Demo Free Update

admin November 28, 2017 0 Comments

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSM
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-411
Total Questions: 234 Q&As
070-411 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains four Network Policy Server (NPS) servers named Server1, Server2, Servers, and Server4.
Server1 is configured as a RADIUS proxy that forwards connection requests to a remote RADIUS server group named Group1.
You need to ensure that Server2 and Server3 receive connection requests. Server4 must only receive connection requests if both Server2 and Server3 are unavailable.
How should you configure Group1?
A. Change the Weight of Server4 to 10.
B. Change the Weight of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
C. Change the Priority of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
D. Change the Priority of Server4 to 10.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise.
You implement a Group Policy central store.
You have an application named App1. App1 requires that a custom registry setting be deployed to all of the computers.
You need to deploy the custom registry setting. The solution must minimize administrator effort.
What should you configure in a Group Policy object (GPO)?
A. The Software Installation settings
B. The Administrative Templates
C. An application control policy
D. The Group Policy preferences
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and dev.contoso.com. The contoso.com forest contains a domain controller named DC1. 70-411 dumps The dev.contoso.com forest contains a domain controller named DC2. Each domain contains an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
Dev.contoso.com has a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 contains 200 settings, including several settings that have network paths. GPO1 is linked to OU1.
You need to copy GPO1 from dev.contoso.com to contoso.com.
What should you do first on DC2?
A. From the Group Policy Management console, right-click GPO1 and select Copy.
B. Run the mtedit.exe command and specify the /Domaintcontoso.com /DC: DC 1 parameter.
C. Run the Save-NetGpocmdlet.
D. Run the Backup-Gpocmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy Server server role and the Remote Access server role installed. The domain contains a server named Server2 that is configured as a RADIUS server.
Server1 provides VPN access to external users.
You need to ensure that all of the VPN connections to Server1 are logged to the RADIUS server on Server2.
What should you run?
A. Add-RemoteAccessRadius -ServerNameServer1 -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled – SharedSecret “Secret” -Purpose Accounting
B. Set-RemoteAccessAccounting -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled
C. Add-RemoteAccessRadius -ServerName Server2 -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled – SharedSecret “Secret” -Purpose Accounting
D. Set-RemoteAccessAccounting -EnableAccountingType Inbox -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has the following role services installed:
– DirectAccess and VPN (RRAS)
– Network Policy Server
Remote users have client computers that run either Windows XP, Windows 7, or Windows 8.
You need to ensure that only the client computers that run Windows 7 or Windows 8 can establish VPN connections to Server1.
What should you configure on Server1?
A. A condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
B. A constraint of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
C. a condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
D. A vendor-specific RADIUS attribute of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a Network Policy Server (NPS) server named NPS1 and a VPN server named VPN1.
VPN1 forwards all authentication requests to NPS1.
A partner company has an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The adatum.com forest contains an NPS server named NPS2.
You plan to grant users from adatum.com VPN access to your network.
You need to authenticate the users from adatum.com on VPN1.
What should you create on each NPS server?
To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct NPS servers. 70-411 dumps Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
070-411 dumps
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed.
You enable Network Access Protection (NAP) on all of the DHCP scopes on Server1.
You need to create a DHCP policy that will apply to all of the NAP non-compliant DHCP clients.
Which criteria should you specify when you create the DHCP policy?
A. The client identifier
B. The user class
C. The vendor class
D. The relay agent information
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media that contains a file named Install.wim. You need to identify the permissions of the mounted images in Install.wim.
What should you do?
A. Run dism.exe and specify the /get-mountedwiminfo parameter.
B. Run imagex.exe and specify the /verify parameter.
C. Run imagex.exe and specify the /ref parameter.
D. Run dism.exe and specify the/get-imageinfo parameter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Client computers run either Windows 7 or Windows 8. All of the client computers have an application named App1 installed.
The domain contains a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 that is applied to all of the client computers.
You need to add a system variable named App1Data to all of the client computers.
Which Group Policy preference should you configure?
A. Environment
B. Ini Files
C. Data Sources
D. Services
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A network administrator creates a Group Policy central store.
After the central store is created, you discover that when you create new Group Policy objects (GPOs), the GPOs do not contain any Administrative Templates.
You need to ensure that the Administrative Templates appear in new GPOs.
What should you do?
A. Add your user account to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
B. Configure all domain controllers as global catalog servers.
C. Copy files from %Windir%\Policydefimtions to the central store.
D. Modify the Delegation settings of the new GPOs.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All user accounts reside in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. 70-411 dumps You link GPO1 to OU1. You configure the Group Policy preference of GPO1 to add a shortcut named Link1 to the desktop of each user.
You discover that when a user deletes Link1, the shortcut is removed permanently from the desktop.
You need to ensure that if a user deletes Link1, the shortcut is added to the desktop again.
What should you do?
A. Enforce GPO1.
B. Modify the Link1 shortcut preference of GPO1.
C. Enable loopback processing in GPO1.
D. Modify the Security Filtering settings of GPO1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Network Policy Server role service installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco

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admin November 20, 2017 0 Comments

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Exam Code: 300-075
Total Questions: 383 Q&As
300-075 dumps
QUESTION 1
If delegated credentials checking has been enabled and remote workers can register to the VCS Expressway, which statement is true?
A. H.323 message credential checks are delegated.
B. SIP registration proxy mode is set to On in the VCS Expressway.
C. A secure neighbor zone has been configured between the VCS Expressway and the VCS Control.
D. SIP registration proxy mode is set to Off in the VCS Expressway.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two configurations can you perform to allow Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunks to send an offer in the INVITE? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the Media Termination Point Required option on the SIP trunk.
B. Enable the Early Offer Support for Voice and Video Calls option on the SIP profile.
C. Select the Display IE Delivery check box in the gateway configuration.
D. Select the Enable Inbound FastStart check box on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers.
E. Select the SRTP Allowed check box on the SIP trunk.
F. Execute the isdn switch-type primary-ni command globally.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the host portion format in Cisco Unified Communications Manager URI dialing is false?
A. The host portion cannot start or end with a hyphen.
B. The host portion is not case sensitive.
C. The host portion accepts characters a-z, A-Z, 0-9, hyphens, and periods.
D. The host portion can have two periods in a row.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two options are requirements for hardware MTP on Cisco IOS routers? 300-075 dumps (Choose two.)
A. the same audio codec on both legs of the call
B. an FXO card
C. a binding IP address
D. a hardware transcoder
E. DSP resources
F. a T1 card
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
An engineer is working on a Cisco VCS Control routing configuration and wants users to be able to dial ccnpcollab and have calls routed to [email protected]. Which option achieves this aim?
A. search rules
B. transforms
C. access rules
D. call policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement about setting up FindMe in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server is true?
A. Users are allowed to delete or change the address of their principal devices.
B. Endpoints should register with an alias that is the same as an existing FindMe ID.
C. If VCS is using Cisco TMS provisioning, users manage their FindMe accounts via VCS.
D. A VCS cluster name must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which functionality does ILS use to link all hub clusters in an ILS network?
A. Fullmesh
B. Automesh
C. ILS updates
D. multicast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which option indicates the best QoS parameters for interactive video?
A. 0% Max Loss, 100 ms One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning
B. 1% Max Loss, 160 ms One-way Latency, 60 ms Jitter, 10% Overprovisioning
C. 1% Max Loss, 150 ms One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning
D. 5% Max Loss, 5 s One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which three commands are necessary to override the default CoS to DSCP mapping on interfaceFastethernet0/1? 300-075 dumps (Choose three.)
A. mls qos map cos-dscp 0 10 18 26 34 46 48 56
B. mls qos map dscp-cos 8 10 to 2
C. mls qos
D. interface Fastethernet0/1
mls qos trust cos
E. interface Fastethernet0/1
mls qos cos 1
F. interface Fastethernet0/2
mls qos cos 1
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 10
Which statement about the host portion format in Cisco Unified Communications Manager URI dialing is false?
A. The host portion cannot start or end with a hyphen.
B. The host portion is not case sensitive.
C. The host portion accepts characters a-z, A-Z, 0-9, hyphens, and periods.
D. The host portion can have two periods in a row.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have deployed a Cisco 2821 ISR to perform as an SRST voice gateway at a remote site. During a network failure between the remote site and the central office, some of the phones located at the remote site are unable to make phone calls. Which two options are potential causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The site has exceeded the number of SRST endpoints supported by the voice gateway.
B. The ccm-manager fallback command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
C. Phones at the remote site are assigned to the incorrect device pool.
D. The ccm-manager fallback-mgcp command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
E. The site has exceeded the number of simultaneous calls allowed in SRST mode.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Which two options are functionalities of subzones in a Cisco VCS deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Resolve names outside of the direct control of the Cisco VCS that exist on the public Internet.
B. Connect to another Cisco VCS on the same side of the firewall to extend dialing capabilities.
C. Traverse a firewall from a protected network to a public or DMZ network.
D. Apply registration, authentication, and media encryption policies.
E. Manage bandwidth to restrict standard definition endpoints from using more than 2 Mb of bandwidth.
Correct Answer: BD

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Microsoft

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admin October 31, 2017 0 Comments

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-764
Total Questions: 119 Q&As
70-764 dumps
QUESTION 1
You manage a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) deployment. The deployment contains a reporting services point.
You subscribe to all client status reports.
You need to subscribe to an Asset Intelligence report.
From where should you configure the subscription?
A. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
B. the Report Server Web service site
C. the Monitoring workspace from the Configuration Manager Console
D. SQL Server Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) is deployed to contoso.com.
You need to inventory the installed software on Windows Phone and iOS devices.
What should you do first?
A. Configure Software Inventory.
B. Add a Microsoft Intune subscription.
C. Configure Network Discovery.
D. Install the Configuration Manager client.
E. Enroll the mobile devices.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. 70-764 dumps The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to receive an email message every day that lists all non-compliant clients.
What should you do?
A. Create an alert subscription.
B. Configure a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report.
C. Configure an in-console alert.
D. Create a ConfigMgr query.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a fault-tolerant solution for the VPN. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network adapter teaming
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. Failover Clustering
D. DirectAccess
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to change the organization name displayed by Configuration Manager.
Which settings should you modify from the Configuration Manager console?
A. Client Policy
B. Computer Agent
C. User and Device Affinity
D. Compliance Settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator.
The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. 70-764 dumps
You need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to implement the technical requirements for the boston.litwareinc.com domain.
Which tools should you use?
A. Gpfixup and Gpupdate
B. Rendom and Gpfixup
C. Gpupdate and Dcgpofix
D. Adprep and Rendom
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a reporting services point.
You need to identify which tools can be used to create and publish custom reports to Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS).
Which tool should you identify?
A. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
B. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
C. Microsoft SQL Server Business Intelligence Development Studio
D. Microsoft Access 2010 and Reporting Services Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that NAP meets the technical requirements.
Which role services should you install?
A. Network Policy Server, Health Registration Authority and Host Credential Authorization Protocol
B. Health Registration Authority, Host Credential Authorization Protocol and Online Responder
C. Certification Authority, Network Policy Server and Health Registration Authority
D. Online Responder, Certification Authority and Network Policy Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration Site named Site1 and a primary site named Site2.
You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2. 70-764 dumps
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites.
What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your company uses System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) to distribute operating system images. The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 8.1 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase.
You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows 8.1 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco

[High Quality Exam Dumps] Free Latest Cisco 100-105 Dumps PDF Materials And VCE Youtube Update

admin October 24, 2017 0 Comments

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 4
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? 100-105 dumps
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down.
Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. 100-105 dumps What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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Microsoft

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admin October 16, 2017 0 Comments

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Office 365
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Exam Code: 70-347
Total Questions: 219 Q&As
070-347 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online. The company has mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external domains. You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains.
You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list.
Correct Answer: D, F

QUESTION 2
Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 5,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange Server 2000.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– Move mailboxes in batches.
– Do not migrate calendar or contact items.
– Provide migration status reports to administrators.
You need to select the appropriate migration strategy.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Staged migration
B. Cutover migration
C. IMAP migration
D. Hybrid migration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Executive employees have been assigned E3 licenses. Non-executive employees have been assigned El licenses. 070-347 dumps An employee who is not on the executive team wants to communicate with executive team members by using Microsoft Lync instant messaging.
You need to ensure that the employee can use Lync.
What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and use Office on Demand.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then run the Office 365 Desktop Setup.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install Office 365 ProPlus.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install the Lync Basic desktop client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription. The company wants to implement an enterprise document collaboration and social networking platform that allows users to upload documents from their computers and conduct informal polls. You need to implement a solution that meets the requirements.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft SharePoint surveys
C. Microsoft Yammer
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
E. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator. The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. You need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company’s Microsoft Exchange Online environment. The company recently subscribed to the Office 365 Enterprise El plan.
The company wants to filter email messages based on the following criteria:
– Reverse DNS lookup
– Sender open proxy test
– HELO/EHLO analysis
– Analysis of spam confidence level (SCL) ratings on email messages from a specific sender
You need to filter all email messages.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate command segment from each list in the answer area.
070-347 dumps

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 plan. The company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online public website that is currently configured to use the onmicrosoft.com domain name. 70-347 dumps
The company purchases a new domain name. You need to change the address of the SharePoint Online public website to the new domain name.
What should you do first?
A. In the SharePoint Online Administration Center, add the new domain.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the new domain.
C. Create a new site collection and assign it the new domain.
D. Create a new public website and assign it to the new domain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. All users have been assigned E3 licenses and use Office Web Apps to create and edit documents. A user attempts to access documents stored on a USB flash drive. When the user double-clicks a file that is stored on the USB flash drive, an error message states that Windows can’t open the file and needs to know what program to use to open it. You need to ensure that the user can start Office applications and edit Office documents by double-clicking files.
What should you do on the user’s computer?
A. Use Office on Demand.
B. Install Office 365 ProPlus from the Office 365 portal.
C. Copy the files from the USB flash drive to the local hard drive.
D. Install and configure Microsoft Word Viewer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your company uses Microsoft SharePoint Online for collaboration.
A document library is configured as shown in the following table.
070-347 dumps
You need to enable the coauthoring of documents in the library.
What should you do?
A. Change the Who should see draft items in this document library? setting to Any user who can read items.
B. Change the Create a version each time you edit a file in this document library? setting to No Versioning.
C. Change the Require documents to be checked out before they can be edited? setting to No.
D. Change the Require content approval for submitted items? setting to No.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company plans to use Office 365 and Microsoft SharePoint Online. Another employee provisions the company’s Office 365 tenant. You discover that the employee can create and manage SharePoint site collections. You need to prevent the employee from creating or managing site collections.
From which role should you remove the employee?
A. Service administrator
B. SharePoint Online administrator
C. Global administrator
D. Site collection administrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 1,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange 2010 on-premises. 70-347 dumps You estimate that it will take a minimum of four weeks to migrate all mailboxes from on-premises Exchange to Exchange Online.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– During the migration, do not change the existing Microsoft Outlook profiles and .ost files used by the employees.
– Ensure that email messages sent between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes during the migration are secure.
– Do not send email messages between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes over the Internet in plain text.
You need to select the migration strategy that meets the requirements.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Cutover migration only
B. IMAP migration only
C. Remote move migration only
D. Staged migration only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
The company has established the following new requirements:
– Members of the legal team must be able to conduct eDiscovery searches.
– Employees must be notified when they send email messages that contain confidential information.
You need to configure the environment.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure journaling to a Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox for all mailboxes.
B. Add the members of the legal team to the Discovery Management role group.
C. Create a Data Loss Prevention policy.
D. Place all executive mailboxes on In-Place Hold for 365 days and use In-Place eDiscovery for mailbox searches.
E. Enable Microsoft Exchange Online Archiving for the executive mailboxes.
F. Place all executive mailboxes on Retention Hold.
Correct Answer: B, C

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Cisco

[High Quality Exam Dumps] High Quality Cisco 200-105 Dumps PDF Materials And VCE Youtube Demo

admin October 13, 2017 0 Comments

High quality Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps pdf training materials and dumps vce youtube update free demo. Get the best Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. https://www.leads4pass.com/200-105.html dumps pdf training resources. Latest Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free try, pass Cisco 200-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 3
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches? 200-105 dumps
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: D,F

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, 200-105 dumps what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Correct Answer: C,F

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? 200-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 12
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: A,C,E

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[High Quality Exam Dumps] Cisco 200-125 Dumps Latest PDF Training Materials And Youtube Free Update

admin September 28, 2017 0 Comments

Latest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf questions and answers free download. Prepare for Cisco 200-125 exam test with latest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf training materials and study guides. https://www.leads4pass.com/200-125.html dumps pdf practice files. Get the best Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf and vce training resources from lead4pass, pass Cisco 200-125 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about static routing are true? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 6
Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
A. It can send a specific number of packet
B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address
C. It can resolve the destination host name
D. It can ping multiple host at the same time
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 8
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router? 200-125 dumps
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
200-125 dumps
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. 200-125 dumps From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

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