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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about static routing are true? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 6
Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
A. It can send a specific number of packet
B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address
C. It can resolve the destination host name
D. It can ping multiple host at the same time
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 8
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router? 200-125 dumps
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
200-125 dumps
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. 200-125 dumps From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Business Intelligence
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-461
Total Questions: 164 Q&As
070-461 dumps
QUESTION 1
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database is used by two web applications that access a table named Products.
You want to create an object that will prevent the applications from accessing the table directly while still providing access to the required data.
You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
Future modifications to the table definition will not affect the applications’ ability to access data.
The new object can accommodate data retrieval and data modification.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of changes to the existing applications.
What should you create for each application?
A. views
B. table partitions
C. table-valued functions
D. stored procedures
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named OrderDetail. You discover that the NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID non-clustered index is fragmented. 70-461 dumps You need to reduce fragmentation.
You need to achieve this goal without taking the index offline. Which Transact-SQL batch should you use?
A. CREATE INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID WITH
DROP
EXISTING
B. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID
REORGANIZE
C. ALTER INDEX ALL ON OrderDetail REBUILD
D. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REBUILD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects.
You create the Airline_Schedules table.
You need to store the departure and arrival dates and times of flights along with time zone information.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: I

QUESTION 4
You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You need to create a batch process that meets the following requirements:
Returns a result set based on supplied parameters.
Enables the returned result set to perform a join with a table.
Which object should you use?
A. Inline user-defined function
B. Stored procedure
C. Table-valued user-defined function
D. Scalar user-defined function
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition. 70-461 dumps
070-461 dumps
You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the stored procedure with multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Customers and Orders.
The tables are related by a column named CustomerID.
You need to create a query that meets the following requirements:
Returns the CustomerName for all customers and the OrderDate for any orders that they have placed.
Results must include customers who have not placed any orders.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
RIGHT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
B. SELECT CustomerName, CrderDate
FROM Customers
JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
C. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
CROSS JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
D. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored procedure?
A. SET XACT_ABORT ON
B. SET ARITHABORT ON
C. TRY
D. BEGIN
E. SET ARITHABORT OFF
F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one another. 70-461 dumps
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are helping your Partner Sales Representatives understand what marketing tools are available to help them acquire new accounts.Which two weapons/resources can you direct them to for account acquisition? (Choose two)
A.Cisco Partner Marketing Demand Generation tools like “Go -Generating Opportunities”
B.Vertical Handbooks
C.Cisco Partner Marketing Central
D.Smart Business Roadmaps
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install a new client-server application named App1 on Server1 and on the client computers.
The client computers must use TCP port 6444 to connect to App1 on Server1. Server1 publishes the information of App1 to an intranet server named Server2 by using TCP port 3080. You need to ensure that all of the client computers can connect to App1. The solution must ensure that the application can connect to Server2.
Which Windows Firewall rule should you create on Server1?
A. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
B. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
C. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
D. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about how to determine if a project return on investment is acceptable to your customer are true? (Choose two) 70-410 dumps
A.Compare the Internal Rate of Return of the project against the customer Internal Rate of Return
B.The customer agrees that the identified solution meets their business requirements
C.Check that our Return on Investment is better than that of the competition.
D.It is too complex to assess a project return on investment
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 4
At which stage of the sales process should you offer a demo of Cisco solutions?
A.Prospecting
B.Qualifying
C.Proposing
D.Agreement
E.Closing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an active directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DCS. DCS has a server core installation of windows server 2012. You need to uninstall Active Directory from DCS manually. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-WindowsFeature cmdlet
B. the dsamain.exe command
C. the ntdsutil.exe command
D. the Remove-ADComputer cmdlet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is Value Based Negotiation?
A.Negotiating based on price
B.Negotiating based on the competition price
C.Negotiating around the value the solution will deliver
D.Negotiating with Senior Management within the client
Correct Answer: C
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 7
How many distinct stages are in the typical selling process? 70-410 dumps
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that hosts the primary DNS zone for contoso.com. All client computers are configured to use DC1 as the primary DNS server. You need to configure DC1 to resolve any DNS requests that are not for the contoso.com zone by querying the DNS server of your Internet Service Provider (ISP).
What should you configure?
A. Name server (NS) records
B. Condition& forwarders
C. Forwarders
D. Naming Authority Pointer (NAPTR) DNS resource records (RR)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors.
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You work as an administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com domain, 70-410 dumps including domain controllers, have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. ABC.com’s user accounts are located in an organizational unit (OU), named ABCStaff.
ABC.com’s managersbelong to a group, named ABCManagers. You have been instructed to create a new Group Policy object (GPO) that should be linked to the ABCStaffOU, but not affect ABC.com’s managers.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider removing the user accounts of the managers from the ABCStaff OU.
B. You should consider configuring the new GPO’s WMI filter.
C. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the Admins group.
D. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the localAdministrators group.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Exam Code: 70-696
Total Questions: 86 Q&As
70-696 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network includes Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. Each Hyper-V server runs multiple virtual machines (VMs). You need to detect performance issues and generate an alert when Hyper-V server load exceeds specific thresholds. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft System Center Capacity Planner 2007
B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007 R2
C. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007 R2
D. Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2008 R2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate security policy requirements. 70-696 pdf What should you do first?
A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are designing a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V environment. You need to be able to dynamically add new storage to Windows virtual machines (VMs). 70-696 dumps What should you do?
A. Use fixed virtual hard disks (VHDs).
B. Install Hyper-V Integration Services on the VMs.
C. Install the VMs in Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs).
D. Use dynamically expanding virtual hard disks (VHDs).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are designing a Hyper-V solution. You plan to virtualize an application server. The application server requires failover clustering that uses shared storage. You need to choose the correct storage solution. What should you choose?
A. two child partitions with VHDs stored on an iSCSI SAN
B. two child partitions with volumes mounted from an iSCSI SAN
C. two host servers with iSCSI-attached storage enabled for Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs)
D. two host servers with Fibre Channelattached storage enabled for Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the application requirements of App4.
What should you do first?
A. Create a Mobile Device Security Policy.
B. Upload App4 to Windows Intune.
C. Set the Mobile Devices Management Authority.
D. Install the Windows Intune client software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that contains the objects shown in the following table.
70-696 dumps
You are creating a new configuration baseline.
You need to identify which objects you can use as evaluation conditions within the new configuration baseline.
Which three objects should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Object1
B. Object2
C. Object3
D. Object4
E. Object5
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 7
You need to prepare Server11. 70-696 pdf
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a file named No_sms_on_drive in the root of drive C.
B. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to Automatic.
C. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary content location to E.
D. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to E.
E. Copy Prepdrv.inf to the root of drive C.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are planning to deploy two Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. You need to design the storage of VHD files for maximum security. 70-696 dumps What should you do?
A. Store the VHD files on a dedicated NTFS volume.
B. Store unencrypted VHD files on a volume that uses Windows BitLocker drive encryption.
C. Store unencrypted VHD files on a volume that uses Encrypted File System (EFS).
D. Store the VHD files on a dedicated Dynamic NTFS Volume.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed.
Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer.
You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues.
You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation.
Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF

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