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QUESTION 1
Which of the following are methods for adding inputs in Splunk? (select all that apply)
A. CLI
B. Splunk Web
C. Editing inputs. conf
D. Editing monitor. conf
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2
What is required when adding a native user to Splunk? (select all that apply)
A. Password
B. Username
C. Full Name
D. Default app
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
After how many warnings within a rolling 30-day period will a license violation occur with an enforced Enterprise
license?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.5/Admin/Aboutlicenseviolations

QUESTION 4
Which Splunk component does a search head primarily communicate with?
A. Indexer
B. Forwarder
C. Cluster master
D. Deployment server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The volume of data from collecting log files from 50 Linux servers and 200 Windows servers will require multiple
indexers. Following best practices, which types of Splunk component instances are needed?
A. Indexers, search head, universal forwarders, license master
B. Indexers, search head, deployment server, universal forwarders
C. Indexers, search head, deployment server, license master, universal forwarder
D. Indexers, search head, deployment server, license master, universal forwarder, heavy forwarder
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Who provides the Application Secret, Integration, and Secret keys, as well as the API Hostname when setting up Duo
for Multi-Factor Authentication in Splunk Enterprise?
A. Duo Administrator
B. LDAP Administrator
C. SAML Administrator
D. Trio Administrator
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://duo.com/docs/splunk

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a valid distribution search group?lead4pass splk-1003 practice test q7

A. option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
In this source definition, the MAX_TIMESTAMP_LOOKHEAD is missing. Which value would fit best?lead4pass splk-1003 practice test q8

A. MAX_TIMESTAMP_L0CKAHEAD = 5
B. MAX_TIMESTAMP_LOOKAHEAD – 10
C. MAX_TIMESTAMF_LOOKHEAD = 20
D. MAX TIMESTAMP LOOKAHEAD – 30
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Where are deployment server apps mapped to clients?
A. Apps tab in forwarder management interface or clientapps.conf.
B. Clients tab in forwarder management interface or deploymentclient.conf.
C. Server Classes tab in forwarder management interface or serverclass.conf.
D. Client Applications tab in forwarder management interface or clientapps.conf.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.5/Updating/Updateconfigurations#2._Reload_the_deployment_server

QUESTION 10
How do you remove missing forwarders from the Monitoring Console?
A. By restarting Splunk.
B. By rescanning active forwarders.
C. By reloading the deployment server.
D. By rebuilding the forwarder asset table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
When running the command shown below, what is the default path in which deployment server.conf is created?
Splunk set deploy-poll deployServer: port
A. SFLUNK_HOME/etc/deployment
B. SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/local
C. SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/default
D. SPLUNK_KOME/etc/apps/deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements describes how distributed search works?
A. Forwarders pull data from the search peers.
B. Search heads store a portion of the searchable data.
C. The search head dispatches searches to the search peers.
D. Search results are replicated within the indexer cluster.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What are the minimum required settings when creating a network input in Splunk?
A. Protocol, port number
B. Protocol, port, location
C. Protocol, username, port
D. Protocol, IP. port number
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
This is what Splunk uses to categorize the data that is being indexed.
A. source type
B. index
C. source
D. host
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What will you learn from the results of the following search? sourcetype=cisco_esa | transaction mid, dcid, icid |
time chart avg(duration)
A. The average time elapsed during each transaction for all transactions
B. The average time for each event within each transaction
C. The average time between each transaction
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements describe the Common Information Model (QM)? (select all that apply)
A. CIM is a methodology for normalizing data.
B. CIM can correlate data from different sources.
C. The Knowledge Manager uses the CIM to create knowledge objects.
D. CIM is an app that can coexist with other apps on a single Splunk deployment.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/CIM/4.15.0/User/Overview

QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes the Splunk Common Information Model (CIM) add-on?
A. The CIM add-on uses machine learning to normalize data.
B. The CIM add-on contains dashboards that show how to map data.
C. The CIM add-on contains data models to help you normalize data.
D. The CIM add-on is automatically installed in a Splunk environment.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
To identify all of the contributing events within a transaction that contains at least one REJECT event, which syntax is
correct?
A. Index-main | REJECT trans session
B. Index-main | transaction sessionid | search REJECT
C. Index=main | transaction sessionid | whose transaction=reject
D. Index=main | transaction sessionid | where transaction=reject\\’\\’
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements describes POST workflow actions?
A. Configuration of a POST workflow action includes choosing a source type.
B. POST workflow actions can be configured to send emails to the URI location.
C. By default, POST workflow actions are shown in both the event and field menus.
D. POST workflow actions can be configured to send POST arguments to the URI location.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/SetupaPOSTworkflowaction

QUESTION 7
Which of the following file formats can be extracted using a delimiter field extraction?
A. CSV
B. PDF
C. XML
D. JSON
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of these search strings is NOT valid:
A. index=web status=50* | chart count over the host, status
B. index=web status=50* | chart count over host by status
C. index=web status=50* | chart count by the host, status
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A report scheduled to run every 15 mins. but takes 17 mins. to complete is in danger of being_____.
A. skipped or deferred
B. automatically accelerated
C. deleted
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In most large Splunk environments, what is the most efficient command that can be used to group events by fields/
A. join
B. stats
C. stream stats
D. transaction
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.2/Search/Abouttransactions In other cases, it\\’s usually better to use
the stats command, which performs more efficiently, especially in a distributed environment. Often there is a unique ID
in the events and stats can be used.

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements describes field aliases?
A. Field alias names replace the original field name.
B. Field aliases can be used in lookup file definitions.
C. Field aliases only normalize data across sources and source types.
D. Field alias names are not case sensitive when used as part of a search.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following searches will show the number of categories used by each host?
A. Sourcetype=access_* |sum bytes by host
B. Sourcetype=access_* |stats sum(categorylD. by host
C. Sourcetype=access_* |sum(bytes) by host
D. Sourcetype=access_* |stats sum by host
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When using the | time chart by the host, which field is represented in the x-axis?
A. date
B. host
C. time
D. _time
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.4/SearchReference/Timechart

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Table of Contents:

Popular Microsoft 70-761 List

Exam 70-761: Querying Data with Transact-SQL: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/70-761

This exam is intended for SQL Server database administrators, system engineers, and developers with two or more years of experience who are seeking to validate their skills and knowledge in writing queries.

Skills measured

  • Manage data with Transact-SQL (40-45%)
  • Query data with advanced Transact-SQL components (30-35%)
  • Program databases by using Transact-SQL (25-30%)

[2020.9] Popular Microsoft 70-761 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a table named Products that stores information about the products your company sells. The table has a column
named ListPrice that stores retail pricing information for products.
Some products are used only internally by the company. Records for these products are maintained in the Products
table for inventory purposes. The price for each of these products is $0.00. Customers are not permitted to order these
products.
You need to increase the list price for products that cost less than $100 by 10 percent. You must only increase pricing
for products that customers are permitted to order. Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

lead4pass 70-761 exam questions q1

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Products with a price of $0.00 would also be increased.

QUESTION 2
You have a database named mydb. You run the following Transact-SQL statements:

lead4pass 70-761 exam questions q2

A value of 1 in the IsActive column indicates that a user is active.
You need to create a count for active users in each role. If a role has no active users, you must display a zero as the
active users count.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

lead4pass 70-761 exam questions q3

You use the table to store data about training courses: when they finished the location and the number of participants in
the courses.
You need to display a result set that shows aggregates for all possible combinations of the number of participants.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?
A. SELECT CourseID, CourseDate, SUM(NumParticipants) FROM CourseParticipants GROUP BY CourseID,
CourseDate
B. SELECT CourseID, CourseDate, SUM(DISTINCT NumParticipants) FROM CourseParticipants GROUP BY
CourseID, CourseDate
C. SELECT CourseID, CourseDate, SUM(NumParticipants) FROM CourseParticipants GROUP BY CourseID,
coursemate WITH CUBE
D. SELECT CourseID, CourseDate, SUM(DISTINCT NumParticipants) FROM CourseParticipants GROUP BY
CourseID, CourseDate WITH ROLLUP
Correct Answer: C
The WITH CUBE clause causes the query to compute all possible totals
References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/craigfr/2007/09/27/aggregation-with-cube/

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You create a table named Customer by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

lead4pass 70-761 exam questions q4

You need to ensure that both records are inserted or neither record is inserted. Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

lead4pass 70-761 exam questions q4-1

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
As there is two separate INSERT INTO statements we cannot ensure that both or neither records are inserted.

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You are a database administrator for an online retail store. You create a table to track orders by running the following
Transact-SQL statement:

lead4pass 70-761 exam questions q5

You need to create a report that includes the following information: Total sales for each year Total sales for each
category per year How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer,
drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segment to the correct locations. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once,
more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-761 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-761 exam questions q5-2

Box 1: GROUP BY Box 2: CUBE GROUP BY CUBE creates groups for all possible combinations of columns. For
GROUP BY CUBE (a, b) the results have groups for unique values of (a, b), (NULL, b), (a NULL), and (NULL, NULL).
Example: This code runs a GROUP BY CUBE operation on Country and Region. SELECT Country, Region,
SUM(Sales) AS TotalSales FROM Sales GROUP BY CUBE (Country, Region); References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/queries/select-group-by-transact-sql

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Popular Microsoft 70-764 List

Exam 70-764: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/70-764

This exam is intended for database professionals who perform installation, maintenance, and configuration tasks. Other responsibilities include setting up database systems, making sure those systems operate efficiently, and regularly storing, backing up, and securing data from unauthorized access.

Skills measured

  • Configure data access and auditing (20-25%)
  • Manage backup and restore of databases (20-25%)
  • Manage and monitor SQL Server instances (35-40%)
  • Manage high availability and disaster recovery (20-25%)

[2020.9] Popular Microsoft 70-764 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
You work as a Database Administrator (DBA) for a company named ABC.com.
The company uses a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 infrastructure.
The sales and marketing departments contain a total of 60 users. Each user uses a custom application that stores data
in a SQL Server database.
Each user has a separate database.
A server named ABC-SQL1 hosts the 60 databases.
You need to configure a backup solution for all the databases.
The solution must ensure that any new databases configured on ABC-SQL1 are automatically added to the backup
schedule. The backup schedule consists of a full backup every night, a differential backup every hour and a transaction
log
backup every 15 minutes.
How should you configure the backup solution?
A. You should configure SQL Server Agent jobs.
B. You should configure Change Data Capture.
C. You should configure Policy-Based Management.
D. You should configure a Maintenance Plan.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database that includes a table named Application. Events.
Application. Events contain millions of records about user activity in an application.
Records in Application. Events that are more than 90 days old are purged nightly.
When records are purged, table locks are causing contention with inserts.
You need to be able to modify the Application. Events without requiring any changes to the applications that utilize
Application.Events.
Which type of solution should you use?
A. Partitioned tables
B. Online index rebuild
C. Change data capture
D. Change tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You manage a Microsoft SQL Server instance that has a database named DB1. The instance has a server audit named
Audit1. DB1 uses the following schemas:

lead4pass 70-764 exam questions q3

You need to implement a database audit specification for database DB1 that meets the following requirements:
Audit only delete statements performed by users in the db_datawriter role.
Audit insert statements for all tables in Schema1 for all users.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-764 exam questions q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-764 exam questions q3-2

QUESTION 4
You are designing a database named DB1.
Changes will be deployed to DB1 every Wednesday night.
You need to recommend a strategy to deploy the changes to DB1.
The strategy must meet the following requirements:
The strategy must not disrupt backup operations.
DB1 must be unavailable to users while the changes are deployed.
You must be able to undo quickly the entire operation.
What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Perform a copy-only database backup before the changes are deployed. If the deployment fails, restore the database
to another server and recover the original. Objects from the restored database.
B. Create a database snapshot. If the deployment fails, recover the objects from the database snapshot.
C. Create a database snapshot. If the deployment fails, revert the database to the database snapshot.
D. Perform a full database backup before the changes are deployed. If the deployment fails, restore the database to
another server and recover the original objects from the restored database.
Correct Answer: C

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Popular Microsoft 70-767 List

Exam 70-767: Implementing a Data Warehouse using SQL:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/70-767

This exam is intended for extract, transform, and load (ETL) and data warehouse developers who create business intelligence (BI) solutions. Their responsibilities include data cleansing, in addition to ETL and data warehouse implementation.

Skills measured

  • Design, implement and maintain a data warehouse (35-40%)
  • Extract, transform and load data (40-45%)
  • Build data quality solutions (15-20%)

[2020.9] Popular Microsoft 70-767 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
You are implementing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports Microsoft Excel workbook data
into a Windows Azure SQL Database database. The package has been deployed to a production server that runs
Windows
Server 2008 R2 and SQL Server 2016.
The package fails when executed on the production server.
You need to ensure that the package can load the Excel workbook data without errors. You need to use the least
amount of administrative effort to achieve this goal.
What should you do?
A. Install a 64-bit ACE driver and execute the package by using the 64-bit run-time option.
B. Enable Address Windowing Extensions (AWE) for the local SQL Server instance.
C. Replace the SSIS Excel source with an SSIS Flat File source.
D. Install a 64-bit ACE driver and replace the Excel source with an OLE DB source.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: XLSX files, the new file type in Excel 2007/2010 cannot be opened with Excel Source/Destination in SSIS.
To use XLSX in SSIS we need to install the ACE driver and use OLE DB Source/Destination to read/write data in
XLSX
files.
ACE is a set of components that facilitate the transfer of data between existing Microsoft Office files such as Microsoft
Office Access (*.mdb and *.accdb) files and Microsoft Office Excel 7 (*.xls, *.xlsx, and *.xlsb) files to Microsoft SQL
Server.
If the SQL Server or your development box does not have an ACE driver then install that 1st.
Note:
*
The most efficient way to link to SQL Server is using an OLEDB connection manager.
Incorrect: Not B:
*
Address Windowing Extensions (AWE) is a Microsoft Windows application programming interface that allows a 32-bit
software application to access more physical memory than it has a virtual address space.
*
Address Windowing Extensions (AWE) is a set of extensions that allows an application to quickly manipulate physical
memory greater than 4GB. Certain data-intensive applications, such as database management systems and scientific
and engineering software, need access to very large caches of data. In the case of very large data sets, restricting the cache to fit within an application\\’s 2GB of user address space is a severe restriction. 

QUESTION 2
A company plans to load data from a CSV file that is stored in a Microsoft Azure Blob storage container.
You need to load the data.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segments to
the correct locations. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-767 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-767 exam questions q2-1

QUESTION 3
You are installing SQL Server Data Quality Services (DQS).
You need to give specific users access to the Data Quality Server.
Which SQL Server application should you use?
A. SQL Server Configuration Manager
B. SQL Server Data Tools
C. SQL Server Management Studio
D. Data Quality Client
Correct Answer: C
Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213045.aspx

QUESTION 4
The package uses data from the Products table and the Prices table. Properties of the Prices source are shown in the
OLE DB Source Editor exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.) and the Advanced Editor for Prices exhibit (Click the Exhibit
button.)

lead4pass 70-767 exam questions q4

You create a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package as shown in the SSIS Package exhibit. (Click
the Exhibit button.)

lead4pass 70-767 exam questions q4-1 lead4pass 70-767 exam questions q4-2

You join the Products and Prices tables by using the reference column.
You need to resolve the error with the package.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-767 exam questions q4-3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-767 exam questions q4-4

There are two important sort properties that must be set for the source or upstream transformation that supplies data to
the Merge and Merge Join transformations:
The Merge Join Transformation requires sorted data for its inputs.
If you do not use a Sort transformation to sort the data, you must set these sort properties manually on the source or the upstream transformation.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/dataflow/transformations/sort-data-for-the-mergeand-merge-join-transformations

QUESTION 5
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an incremental data load strategy.
The package reads data from a source system that uses the SQL Server change data capture (CDC) feature.
You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source system.
You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert, update, and delete
operations.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. Audit
B. DQS Cleansing
C. CDC Splitter
D. Pivot
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into different data flows
for Insert, Update and Delete operations Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh758656.aspx

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Popular Microsoft 70-768 List

Exam 70-768: Developing SQL Data Models: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/70-768

This exam is intended for business intelligence (BI) developers who focus on creating BI solutions that require implementing multidimensional data models, implementing and maintaining OLAP cubes, and implementing tabular data models.

Skills measured

  • Design a multidimensional business intelligence (BI) semantic model (25-30%)
  • Design a tabular BI semantic model (20-25%)
  • Develop queries using Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) and Data Analysis Expressions (DAX) (15-20%)
  • Configure and maintain SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) (30-35%)

[2020.9] Popular Microsoft 70-768 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
You are a business analyst for a company that uses a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular database
for reporting. The database model contains the following tables:

lead4pass 70-768 exam questions q1

You have been asked to write a query for a report that returns the total sales for each product subcategory, as well as
for each product category.
You need to write the query to return the data for the report.
How should you complete the DAX statement? To answer, drag the appropriate DAX segment to the correct locations.
Each DAX segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or
scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-768 exam questions q1-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-768 exam questions q1-2

Box 1:EVALUATE
Box 2:SUMMERIZE
Box 3:ROLLUP
Box 4:\\’Product Subcategory\\’ [\\’Product Subcategory Name]
Note: The behavior of SUMMARIZE is similar to the GROUP BY syntax of a SELECT statement in SQL. For example,
consider the following query.
EVALUATE
SUMMARIZE(
\\’Internet Sales\\’,

\\’Internet Sales\\'[Order Date],
“Sales Amount”, SUM( \\’Internet Sales\\'[Sales Amount] )
)
This query calculates the total of Sales Amount for each date in which there is at least one
order,
producing this result.

QUESTION 2
You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project that will be used by the finance, sales, and
marketing teams.
The sales team reports that the model is too complex and difficult to use. The sales team does not need any information
other than sales related resources in the tabular model. The finance and marketing teams need to see all the resources
in the tabular model.
You need to implement a solution that meets the needs of the sales team while minimizing development and
administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Create a separate partition for each team.
B. Create a separate data source for each team.
C. Create a perspective for the sales team.
D. Enable client-side security to filter non-sales data.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to create the cube processing job and the dimension processing job. Which processing task should you use
for each job? To answer, drag the appropriate processing tasks to the correct locations. Each processing task may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-768 exam questions q3

Box 1: ProcessData Processes data only without building aggregations or indexes. If there is data is in the partitions, it
will be dropped before re-populating the partition with source data. Box 2: Process Update Forces a re-read of data and
an update of dimension attributes. Flexible aggregations and indexes on related partitions will be dropped. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/multidimensionalmodels/processing-options-and-settings-analysisservices

QUESTION 4
You install a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance in tabular mode on a server.
While processing a very large tabular model, you receive an out-of-memory error. You identify that the amount of
physical memory in the server is insufficient. Additional physical memory cannot be installed on the server.
You need to configure the server to allow paging to disk by using the operating system page file (pagefile.sys).
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-768 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-768 exam questions q4-1

QUESTION 5
You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project.
A column named City must be added to the table named Customer. The column will be used in the definition of a
hierarchy. The City column exists in the Geography table that is related to the Customer table.
You need to add the City column to the Customer table.
How should you write the calculation?
A. City:= LOOKUP(Geography[City],Geography[GeographyKey],[GeographyKey])
B. City:= LOOKUPVALUE(Geography[City],Geography[GeographyKey],[GeographyKey]) C
.=RELATED(Geography[City])

C. =RELATED(Geography.City)
D. =VALUES(Geography[City])
E. City:=VALUES(Geography[City])
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: * RELATED Function Returns a related value from another table.

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Latest updates Microsoft 70-779 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Four workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q1

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q1-1

The tables in the model contain the following data:
DailyRepairs has a log of hours and revenue for each day, workshop, and repair type. Every day, a log entry is created
for each workshop, even if no hours or revenue are recorded for that day. Total Hours and Total Revenue are two
measures defined in DailyRepairs. Total Hours sums the Hours column, and Total Revenue sums the Revenue column.
Workshops have a list of all the workshops and the current and previous workshop managers. The format of the
Workshop Manager column is always Firstname Lastname, A value of 1 in the latest column indicates that the
workshop
The manager listed in the record is the current workshop manager.
Repair types have a list of all the repair types.
Dates have a list of all the repair types.
Dates have a list of dates from 2015to 2018.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to create a PivotChart that displays the month, the hours of the month, and the hours of the previous month,
as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q1-2

Which DAX formula should you use for the Total Hours Last Month measure? To answer, drag the appropriate values to
the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q1-3

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have two Microsoft SQL Server database servers named Production1 and Test1. Production1 contains the same
tables as Test1, but only a subset of the data.
You add Test1 as a data source, and you select 10 tables. You configure several transformations.
You need to connect the model to the tables in Production1. The solution must maintain the existing transformations.
Solution: From Query Editor, you edit the source of each table query.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You have six workbook queries that each extracts a table from a Microsoft Azure SQL database. The tables are loaded
to the data model, but the data is not loaded to any worksheets. The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q3

Your company has 100 product subcategories and more than 10,000 products.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to create a simplified view of the workbook for some users. The simplified view must only display data from
FactSales, DimProduct, and DimDate.
What should you do in the data model?
A. Click Hide from Client Tolls for all the tables except FactSales, DimProduct, and DimDate.
B. Create a new perspective.
C. Modify the Table Behavior settings for FactSales, DimProduct, and DimDate.
D. Add the columns from FactSales, DimProduct, and DimDate to the Default Field Set.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a model that contains the following table named Sales.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q4

You have a measure named TotalSales that calculates the sum of Line Total.
You plan to create a PivotChart to display TotalSale for each category and the percent of total sales for each category
as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q4-1

How should you complete the DAX formula for the Percent measure? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the
correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You need to drag the split bar between
panes or

scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is wroth on point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q4-2

QUESTION 5
You have 12 sales reports stored in a folder as CSV files. Each report represents one month of sales data for a year.
The reports have the same structure.
You need to analyze the entire year of sales data.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q5

QUESTION 6
You have a workbook query that gets data from a table in a Microsoft Azure SQL database. The table has a column
named Phone. The values in Phone are in a format of 999-999-9999. The first three digits of each phone number
represent
the area code and the rest of the digits represent the local phone number.
You need to split the Phone column into two columns. The first column must contain the area code and the second
the column must contain the local phone number.
How should you complete the query? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q6

QUESTION 7
You have a Power Pivot data model that contains a table named DimProduct DimProduct has seven columns named
ProductKey, ProductLabel, ProductName, ProductDescription, ProductSubCategoryKey, Manufacturer, and Brand.
Only the members of the product team use all the data in the DimProduct table.
You need to simplify the model for other users by hiding all the columns except ProductName.
What should you do?
A. Create a perspective that has only the ProductName field from DimProduct selected.
B. Select all the columns in DimProduct except ProductName, right-click the columns, and then click Hide from Client
Tools.
C. Edit the Default Field Set for DimProduct and add ProductName to the Default Field.
D. Edit the Table Behavior settings for DimProduct and add ProductName to the Default Label.

Correct Answer: B
https://support.office.com/en-us/article/hide-columns-and-tables-in-power-pivotddf5b1f2-2ed2-4bdb-8f78-6f94503ca87a

QUESTION 8
You install Microsoft Power BI Publisher for Excel.
You need to use Excel to connect and analyze Power BI data.
To which two types of Power BI data can you connect? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. apps
B. datasets
C. reports
D. dashboard
Correct Answer: BC
Analyze in Excel is very useful for datasets and reports that connect to Analysis Services Tabular or Multidimensional
databases, or from Power BI Desktop files or Excel workbooks with data models that have model measures created
using Data Analysis Expressions (DAX).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-analyze-in-excel

QUESTION 9
You have a workbook query that loads data from C:\Data\Users.xlsx.
You move Users.xlsx to a shared folder on the network.
You need to ensure that you can refresh the data from Users.xlsx.
What should you do?
A. From the Linked Table tab in Power Pivot, modify the Update Mode.
B. From Query Editor, modify the Source step.
C. From the Insert tab in Excel, click My Add-ins, and then manage the add-ins.
D. From the Data tab in Excel click Connections, and then modify the properties of the connection.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return
to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Excel workbook that contains a table named Table1. A sample of the data in Table1 is shown in the
following table.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q10

You need to create a PivotTable in PowerPivot as shown in the exhibit.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q10-1

Solution: You create a measure named Products the uses the CONCATENATEX DAX function. You add a PivotTable.
You drag Products to the Rows field. You drag Price to the Values field. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You create a new workbook and add a table to a data model. The data is shown in the following table.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q11

Witch three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q11-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q11-2

Create a Pivot Table.
Create a measure.
Create a Power View Report

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Power Pivot model that contains the following tables.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q12

There is a relationship between Products and ProductCategory.
You need to create a hierarchy in Products that contains ProductCategoryName and ProductName.
Solution: You create a measure that uses the ISCROSSFILTERED DAX function
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes

B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
From a workbook query, you import a table that has the following data.

lead4pass 70-779 exam question q13

A. From the Format menu, click Trim.
B. From the Format menu, click Clean.
C. From the Split Column menu, click By Delimiter.
D. From the Extract menu, click Last Characters.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam 70-487: Developing Microsoft Azure and Web Services: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-487.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Accessing Data (20-25%)
  • Querying and Manipulating Data by Using the Entity Framework (20-25%)
  • Creating and Consuming Web API-based services (20-25%)
  • Designing and Implementing Web Services (15-20%)
  • Deploying Web Applications and Services (15-20%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this certification are professional developers that use Visual Studio 2017 and the Microsoft® .NET Core Framework to design and develop Web solutions. Candidates should have a minimum of three to five years of experience developing ASP.NET MVC-based solutions. Additionally, candidates should be able to demonstrate the following:

  • Experience designing and developing Web applications that access various (local and remote) data and services including Windows Azure
  • Experience with the full software development life cycle of data and service solutions
  • Experience developing and deploying to multi-tier environments, including Windows Azure
  • Experience designing and developing asynchronous solutions
  • Experience creating and consuming HTTP services

Latest Updates Microsoft 70-487 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

DRAG DROP
The service has been deployed to Windows Azure.
Trey Research has provided version 1.3.0.0 of the assembly to support a change in the serialization format. The service
must remain available during the transition to the new serialization format.
You need to ensure that the service is using the new assembly.
Which configuration setting should you add to the web.config? (To answer, drag the appropriate configuration elements
to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each configuration element may be used once, more than once,
or
not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q1

Correct Answer:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q1-1

QUESTION 2

You are developing an ASP.NET MVC Web API application.
The methods of the Web API must return details about the result of the operation. You need to create a method to add
products.
You have the following code:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q2

Which code segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2, Target 3, Target 4 and Target 5 to complete the code?
{To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q2-1

QUESTION 3

You are developing an ASP.NET Core web application by using an Entity Framework code-first approach. The
application uses an SQLite database. You make changes to the classes in the model. You must apply the changes to
the
database.
You need to suggest an approach to reliably handle the Entity Framework migrations.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Modify the scaffolded migration script to drop the modified tables.
B. Run the following command: dotnet ef database update
C. Modify the scaffolded migration script to create new tables with the migration changes.
D. Modify the scaffolded migration script to drop the existing database and create the new database.
E. Run the following command: dotnet ef migrations add

Correct Answer: CDE

E: Run dotnet ef migrations add InitialCreate to scaffold a migration and create the initial set of tables for the model.
C: You can work around some of the SQLite limitations by manually writing code in your migrations to perform a table
rebuild. A table rebuild involves renaming the existing table, creating a new table, copying data to the new table, and
dropping the old table.
D: SQLite does not support all migrations (schema changes) due to limitations in SQLite. For new development,
consider dropping the database and creating a new one rather than using migrations when your model changes.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/ef/core/get-started/netcore/new-db-sqlite https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/ef/core/providers/sqlite/limitations

QUESTION 4

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You need to ensure that testing, development, and end-user access requirements are met. Solution: Add Web App
backend endpoints to Azure Traffic Manager and use weighted routing. Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

Scenario: All testing must interact directly with the Web App backend. Automated testing of the solution is performed
using a remote third-party testing solution.

QUESTION 5

You have a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service named Service1.
You deploy the WCF service at the root level of a website in Azure. The address of the Azure website is
http://service1.azurewebsites.net/.
You need to generate a .cs file that can be used to interact with Service1.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q5

QUESTION 6

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You deploy an ASP.NET Core web application to Azure App Services. You are using Azure Event Hubs to collect the
telemetry data for the application.
You need to configure Event Hubs to automatically deliver the telemetry data stream to a persistent data store.
Solution: Configure Event Hubs Capture to deliver data to Azure Blob storage.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

Azure Event Hubs Capture enables you to automatically deliver the streaming data in Event Hubs to an Azure Blob
storage or Azure Data Lake Store account of your choice, with the added flexibility of specifying a time or size interval.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-capture-overview

QUESTION 7

You need to ensure that computed events are processed correctly. What should you do?
A. Move the WebJob to a different App Service plan.
B. Select a deployment slot for the WebJob.
C. Disable WebJobs during deployments.
D. Create an additional upgrade domain.

Correct Answer: B

Scenario: An Azure WebJob named EventJob will be deployed with the Event Service Web App. The WebJob:
1.
Creates new computed events when partner events are created.
2.
Must be active whenever the Event Service is running.
3.
Is updated once a quarter.
References: https://stackify.com/azure-deployment-slots/

QUESTION 8

DRAG DROP The GetVendorPolicy() private method in the ProcessedOrderController controller is returning a
CacheItemPolicy object with default values. The returned policy must expire if the external file located at
C:\Triggers\VendorTrigger.txt has been modified or the timeout outlined in the technical requirements is reached.
You need to return the policy.
You have the following code:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q8

Which code segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2 and Target 3 to build the method? (To answer, drag the
appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q8-1

Correct Answer:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q8-2

QUESTION 9

You need to load flight information provided by Consolidated Messenger. What should you use?
A. Office Open XML
B. COM interop
C. OleDbConnection and OleDbDataReader
D. EntityConnection and EntityDataReader

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

DRAG DROP
You need to configure settings to identify regional outages.
Which values should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct settings. Each value may be used
once, more than once, or mot at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q10

Box 1, Probing interval: 10 Probing Interval. This value specifies how often an endpoint is checked for its health from a
Traffic Manager probing agent. You can specify two values here: 30 seconds (normal probing) and 10 seconds (fast
probing). If no values are provided, the profile sets to a default value of 30 seconds.
Box 2: Tolerated Number of Failures: 3 Tolerated Number of Failures. This value specifies how many failures a Traffic
The manager probing agent tolerates before marking that endpoint as unhealthy. Its value can range between 0 and 9. A
value of 0 means a single monitoring failure can cause that endpoint to be marked as unhealthy. If no value is specified,
it uses the default value of 3.
Scenario: Regional access to the Event Service API
Data for partners in Germany and Brazil must be served from Azure datacenters in their respective geographies unless
there is a regional Azure outage. All other partners must use the US West Azure datacenter.
The solution will be highly available. You define regional Azure outages as periods of 60 seconds or more where the
Event Service is not available.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-monitoring

QUESTION 11

You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application that processes sensitive data.
Users in an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group named DataAdmins must be able to see all data in a human-readable form. Sensitive data must be masked from all other users that handle the data store.
You need to implement storage for the application.
What should you implement?
A. Azure SQL Database
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure Database for MySQL
D. Azure Database for PostgreSQL
E. Azure Storage Tables

Correct Answer: E

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/security/authentication/identity-custom-storageproviders?view=aspnetcore-2.2

QUESTION 12

DRAG DROP
You need to update the GetBook() method to retrieve book data by using ADO.NET.
You have the following code:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q12

Which code segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2, Target 3, Target 4, and Target 5 to complete this code?
(To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location in the answer area. Each segment may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q12-1

Correct Answer:

exampdfdownload 70-487 q12-2

QUESTION 13

You need to identify a solution to display the car brands. What should you include in the solution?
A. Azure Automation
B. Azure RemoteApp
C. the Service Bus queue
D. a virtual private network (VPN)
E. the Service Bus topics
F. the Service Bus relay
G. ExpressRoute

Correct Answer: C

Azure Service Bus Messaging can safely use the QueueClient object for sending messages from concurrent
asynchronous operations and multiple threads. Scenario: The action in the Web API that returns the car brand must be
asynchronous, while all other actions must be synchronous.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-busperformance-improvements

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1Y0-A26 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator is working with a production resource pool and a test resource pool. The administrator needs to move three virtual machines from the test resource pool into the production resource pool. Which action must the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. Drag the three virtual machines from the test resource pool to the production resource pool.
B. Convert the three virtual machines to templates and deploy the templates into the production resource pool.
C. Copy the three virtual machines and import the copies of the virtual machines into the production resource pool.
D. Export the three virtual machines as backups and import the virtual machines into the production resource pool.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator is creating a vDisk image of a physical Windows server using XenConvert. This vDisk is going to be used by multiple target devices in Standard Image mode. Which two steps does the administrator need to take to prepare the Windows server for physical- to-virtual conversion? (Choose two.)
A. Disable Windows Autoplay.
B. Enable Windows Automount.
C. Put the server in Standby mode.
D. Format the hard disk drive of the server.
Correct Answer: A, B

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An administrator is creating a vDisk image of a physical Windows server using XenConvert. This vDisk is going to be used by multiple target devices in Standard Image mode. What does the administrator need to do during the physical-to-virtual conversion to increase the vDisk performance?
A. SysPrep the vDisk.
B. Optimize the vDisk.
C. Run the Windows server in Safe mode.
D. Defragment the physical hard disk before conversion.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two CLI commands will correctly restart a virtual machine? 1Y0-A26 dumps (Choose two.)
A. xe vm-start vm=
B. xe vm-reboot vm=
C. xe vm-reboot uuid=
D. xe vm-reset-powerstate vm= -force
Correct Answer: B, C

QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator manages four XenServer hosts in a resource pool. To increase capacity, the administrator purchased one new host, which is a different CPU model, but from the same manufacturer. The administrator CANNOT add the new server to the existing pool. What does the administrator need to use to force the host to join the existing pool?
A. Command line
B. Maintenance Mode
C. Add to Pool Wizard
D. Add Server Wizard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An administrator needs to add a new server to an existing pool in a remote datacenter. The administrator has NO access to XenCenter. Which command does the administrator need to use to prepare a XenServer host before adding it to a heterogeneous resource pool?
A. host-cpu-list
B. host-sync-data
C. host-param-set
D. host-set-cpu-features
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
An administrator needs to create a resource pool of XenServer hosts. Which two options are required of each host to create a homogeneous resource pool? (Choose two.)
A. Shared storage
B. Same vendor and CPU type
C. XenServer Advanced License or higher
D. Same version of XenServer and hotfixes installed
Correct Answer: B, D

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a single resource pool containing six XenServer hosts. All hosts have the same CPU manufacturer, but different CPU model.
Which two host parameters need to be the same across all hosts to create a heterogeneous resource pool? (Choose two.)
A. Time zone
B. Usable memory
C. Installed hotfixes
D. XenServer version
Correct Answer: C, D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A XenServer pool consists of two XenServer hosts that each have four network interface cards (NICs). The first two NICs form a bond that is used for management and virtual machine network traffic. 1Y0-A26 dumps The other two NICs are unused. The administrator notices that the system is using all available network bandwidth and iSCSI disk performance is being affected. Which network type could the administrator create to move the storage traffic to one of the unused NICs?
A. Bonded
B. Management
C. Cross-server private
D. Single-server private
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: In preparation for adding a new iSCSI SAN to the environment, an administrator needs to separate the storage traffic from the XenServer management traffic. The host is connected to the iSCSI SAN on the 192.168.30.0/24 subnet using NIC 3. What must the administrator create to separate the storage network traffic?
A. A bonded network
B. An external network
C. A management interface
D. A single-server private network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: An administrator needs to upgrade the current XenServer environment to version 6.0. The current XenServer environment consists of 20 production virtual machines running mission- critical applications. When is it appropriate for the administrator to use the rolling pool upgrade wizard in this environment?
A. When upgrading from XenServer 5.5 or earlier
B. When high availability is enabled in the current environment
C. When virtual machines in the current environment need to keep running
D. When the current environment contains a SAN adapter for the StorageLink storage repository
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to upgrade the existing XenServer pool consisting of four hosts to version 6.0. When can the administrator use the rolling pool upgrade wizard?
A. When upgrading from XenServer 5.6 or later
B. When XenServer workload balancing is enabled
C. When the XenServer installation media is unavailable
D. When there are at least three XenServer hosts in the pool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Scenario: An administrator needs to add memory modules to all hosts in a pool. The pool consists of three XenServer hosts with high availability enabled. High availability is able to tolerate one host failure. Which action must the administrator take to ensure that another host will be assigned as pool master before the current pool master memory is upgraded?
A. Disable multipathing.
B. Put the XenServer host into maintenance mode.
C. Run the xe host-emergency-ha-disable command.
D. Run the xe pool-emergency-transition-to-master command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
An administrator needs to perform maintenance on a XenServer host that is the pool master and that has high availability enabled. Which two commands would the administrator have to use to prepare the XenServer host for maintenance? (Choose two.)
A. host-disable
B. host-evacuate
C. host-shutdown-agent
D. host-management-disable
E. host-emergency-ha-disable
Correct Answer: A, B

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An administrator needs to change the pool master to prepare for maintenance activities during the evening. High availability is currently enabled. Using the XenCenter Console, what must the administrator do to change the pool master?
A. Disable high availability.
B. Configure workload balancing.
C. Enable virtual machine protection policy.
D. Enter maintenance mode on the pool master.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Scenario: An administrator realizes that the XenServer pool master has experienced an unrecoverable issue and crashed over the weekend. High availability is currently disabled. 1Y0-A26 dumps
Which command must the administrator run on the XenServer CLI of a pool member to recover the XenServer pool?
A. xe pool-ha-enable
B. xe pool-recover-slaves
C. xe pool-designate-new-master
D. xe pool-emergency-transition-to-master
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator needs to install Windows Server 2008 R2 on a new virtual machine. The Windows Server 2008 R2 ISO file is located on a Windows share. Which storage repository does the administrator need to create to be able to mount the ISO file to the new virtual machine?
A. CIFS
B. iSCSI
C. NFS ISO
D. StorageLink
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A XenServer pool consists of two XenServer hosts. Both hosts have three network interface cards (NICs). One NIC will be used to connect to a new shared storage LUN. The administrator needs to be able to migrate virtual machines from one XenServer host to the other. What does the administrator need to select in XenCenter to make this LUN available to both XenServers?
A. CIFS
B. NFS ISO
C. Hardware HBA
D. Software iSCSI
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Scenario: A XenServer host has a Fibre Channel adapter which is connected to the corporate SAN. The SAN Administrator created a new LUN and presented it to the XenServer host. Which storage repository type does the administrator need to use to be able to create virtual machines on the LUN?
A. Local LVM
B. EXT3 VHD
C. Hardware HBA
D. Software iSCSI
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Scenario: An administrator is deploying a XenDesktop environment and would like to make use of XenServer IntelliCache on an existing host to improve performance. The environment is configured with local, iSCSI, and NFS ISO storage repositories (SRs).
NO virtual machines are on the host. What must the administrator do before IntelliCache can be enabled?
A. Create a new LUN on the iSCSI SR and enable thin provisioning.
B. Convert the existing NFS ISO SR to NFS VHD with thin provisioning enabled.
C. Destroy the existing LVM local SR and replace it with a thin provisioned EXT3 SR.
D. Format the existing iSCSI SR with the EXT2 file system and enable thin provisioning.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands is used to rotate, compress, and mail system logs?
A. rotatelog
B. striplog
C. syslogd –rotate
D. logrotate
E. logger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager?
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Depending on the host\’s configuration, which of the following files can be used to turn on and off network services running on a host? LX0-104 dumps (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. /etc/profile
B. /etc/services
C. /etc/inetd.conf
D. /etc/xinetd.conf
E. /etc/host.conf
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands shows the current color depth of the X Server?
A. xcd
B. xcdepth
C. xwininfo
D. xcolordepth
E. cat /etc/X11
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is not contained in the locale setting of the operating system?
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Why should a regular user edit his personal crontab by using the command crontab instead of just editing his crontab file manually?
A. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a common database and must be extracted before editing.
B. Because crontab starts the cron daemon in case it is not running due to no other crontab entries existing.
C. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a special directory which is maintained by the cron daemon and not writable for regular users.
D. Because crontab collects information about all users crontabs and recommends similar commands used by other users of the system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a legacy program provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line?
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
After issuing:
function myfunction { echo $1 $2 ; }
in Bash, which output does:
myfunction A B C
Produce?
A. A B
B. A B C
C. A C
D. B C
E. C B A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the dig command? LX0-104 dumps
A. It can be used as a tool for querying DNS servers.
B. It can be used for searching through indexed file content.
C. It can be used to look for open ports on a system.
D. It can be used to ping all known hosts on the current subnet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In order to discover the link layer address of the device that owns a specific IPv4 or IPv6 address, which mechanism is used?
A. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use ARP.
B. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use Neighbor Discovery.
C. IPv4 uses ARP while IPv6 uses Neighbor Discovery.
D. IPv4 uses Neighbor Discovery while IPv6 uses ARP.
E. Both IPv4 and IPv6 can use either ARP or Neighbor Discovery depending on the network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Postfix
B. Procmail
C. Sendmail
D. Exim
E. SMTPd
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following commands gets the GnuPG public key with the id 63B4835B from the keyserver example.com?
A. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –recv-key 63B4835B
B. gpg –search-key hkp://[email protected]
C. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –get-key 63B4835B
D. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –add-key 63B4835B
E. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –key 63B4835B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To prevent a specific user from scheduling tasks with at, what should the administrator do?
A. Add the specific user to /etc/at.allow file.
B. Add the specific user to [deny] section in the /etc/atd.conf file.
C. Add the specific user to /etc/at.deny file.
D. Add the specific user to nojobs group.
E. Run the following: atd –deny [user].
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following application security testing techniques is implemented when an automated system generates random input data?
A. Fuzzing
B. XSRF
C. Hardening
D. Input validation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following can be used by a security administrator to successfully recover a user’s forgotten password on a password protected file?
A. Cognitive password
B. Password sniffing
C. Brute force
D. Social engineering
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A security administrator wants to check user password complexity. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use?
A. Password history
B. Password logging
C. Password cracker
D. Password hashing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Certificates are used for: (Select TWO).
A. Client authentication.
B. WEP encryption.
C. Access control lists.
D. Code signing.
E. Password hashing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a hardware based encryption device?
A. EFS
B. TrueCrypt
C. TPM
D. SLE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?
A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C. Validating user input in web applications
D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
JK0-018 dumps Which of the following MOST interferes with network-based detection techniques?
A. Mime-encoding
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. Anonymous email accounts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A certificate authority takes which of the following actions in PKI?
A. Signs and verifies all infrastructure messages
B. Issues and signs all private keys
C. Publishes key escrow lists to CRLs
D. Issues and signs all root certificates
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Use of a smart card to authenticate remote servers remains MOST susceptible to which of the following attacks?
A. Malicious code on the local system
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Brute force certificate cracking
D. Distributed dictionary attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Separation of duties is often implemented between developers and administrators in order to separate which of the following?
A. More experienced employees from less experienced employees
B. Changes to program code and the ability to deploy to production
C. Upper level management users from standard development employees
D. The network access layer from the application access layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?
A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team.
B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process.
C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process.
D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial information. Which of the following attacks is being described?
A. Phishing
B. Tailgating
C. Pharming
D. Vishing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A user in the company is in charge of various financial roles but needs to prepare for an upcoming audit. They use the same account to access each financial system. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely be implementedwithin the company?
A. Account lockout policy
B. Account password enforcement
C. Password complexity enabled
D. Separation of duties
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A CRL is comprised oF.
A. Malicious IP addresses.
B. Trusted CA’s.
C. Untrusted private keys.
D. Public keys.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Sara, a user, downloads a keygen to install pirated software. After running the keygen, system performance is extremely slow and numerous antivirus alerts are displayed. JK0-018 dumps Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware?
A. Logic bomb
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Adware
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following may significantly reduce data loss if multiple drives fail at the same time?
A. Virtualization
B. RAID
C. Load balancing
D. Server clustering
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?
A. Management
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Operational
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic?
A. Connect the WAP to a different switch.
B. Create a voice VLAN.
C. Create a DMZ.
D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Select TWO).
A. 10.4.4.125
B. 10.4.4.158
C. 10.4.4.165
D. 10.4.4.189
E. 10.4.4.199
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which of the following algorithms has well documented collisions? (Select TWO).
A. AES
B. MD5
C. SHA
D. SHA-256
E. RSA
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET?
A. HTTPS
B. HMAC
C. GPG
D. SSH
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
An email client says a digital signature is invalid and the sender cannot be verified. The recipient is concerned with which of the following concepts?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Remediation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an effective way to ensure the BEST temperature for all equipment within a datacenter?
A. Fire suppression
B. Raised floor implementation
C. EMI shielding
D. Hot or cool aisle containment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following transportation encryption protocols should be used to ensure maximum security between a web browser and a web server? JK0-018 dumps
A. SSLv2
B. SSHv1
C. RSA
D. TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Developers currently have access to update production servers without going through an approval process. Which of the following strategies would BEST mitigate this risk?
A. Incident management
B. Clean desk policy
C. Routine audits
D. Change management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP?
A. TFTP is slower than FTP.
B. TFTP is more secure than FTP.
C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP.
D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again.
Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is characterized by an attacker attempting to map out an organization’s staff hierarchy in order to send targeted emails?
A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Privilege escalation
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to discover comprehensive security threats on a network?
A. Design reviews
B. Baseline reporting
C. Vulnerability scan
D. Code review
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is an example of a false positive?
A. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
B. A biometric iris scanner rejects an authorized user wearing a new contact lens.
C. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
D. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Data execution prevention is a feature in most operating systems intended to protect against which type of attack?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Header manipulation
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?
A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures?
A. User permission reviews
B. Mandatory vacations
C. Separation of duties
D. Job function rotation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
In which of the following scenarios is PKI LEAST hardened?
A. The CRL is posted to a publicly accessible location.
B. The recorded time offsets are developed with symmetric keys.
C. A malicious CA certificate is loaded on all the clients.
D. All public keys are accessed by an unauthorized user.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application’s security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
A security administrator has just finished creating a hot site for the company. JK0-018 dumps This implementation relates to which of the following concepts?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Succession planning
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
In the initial stages of an incident response, Matt, the security administrator, was provided the hard drives in question from the incident manager. Which of the following incident response procedures would he need to perform in order to begin
the analysis? (Select TWO).
A. Take hashes
B. Begin the chain of custody paperwork
C. Take screen shots
D. Capture the system image
E. Decompile suspicious files
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 40
Which of the following is used to certify intermediate authorities in a large PKI deployment?
A. Root CA
B. Recovery agent
C. Root user
D. Key escrow
Correct Answer: A

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New CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering
C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router.
Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by the computer with IP 10.2.2.10.
DIAGRAM
PC1 PC2
[192.168.1.30]——–[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]———[10.2.2.10] LOGS
10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN
10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK
10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following can be inferred about the above environment?
A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server.
B. The web server listens on a non-standard port.
C. The router filters port 80 traffic.
D. The router implements NAT.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?
A. NIPS
B. HIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has tasked The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to develop and update all Internal Operating Procedures and Standard Operating Procedures documentation in order to successfully respond to future incidents. Which of the following stages of the Incident Handling process is the team working on?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Eradication
C. Recovery
D. Preparation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Used in conjunction, which of the following are PII? (Select TWO).
A. Marital status
B. Favorite movie
C. Pet’s name
D. Birthday
E. Full name
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
A victim is logged onto a popular home router forum site in order to troubleshoot some router configuration issues. The router is a fairly standard configuration and has an IP address of 192.168.1.1. The victim is logged into their router administrative interface in one tab and clicks a forum link in another tab. Due to clicking the forum link, the home router reboots. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?
A. Brute force password attack
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A recent spike in virus detections has been attributed to end-users visiting www.compnay.com. The business has an established relationship with an organization using the URL of www.company.com but not with the site that has been causing the infections. Which of the following would BEST describe this type of attack?
A. Typo squatting
B. Session hijacking
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
A database administrator receives a call on an outside telephone line from a person who states that they work for a well-known database vendor. The caller states there have been problems applying the newly released vulnerability patch for their database system, and asks what version is being used so that they can assist. Which of the following is the BEST action for the administrator to take?
A. Thank the caller, report the contact to the manager, and contact the vendor support line to verify any reported patch issues.
B. Obtain the vendor’s email and phone number and call them back after identifying the number of systems affected by the patch.
C. Give the caller the database version and patch level so that they can receive help applying the patch.
D. Call the police to report the contact about the database systems, and then check system logs for attack attempts.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An IT security technician is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company. SY0-401 dumps
Which of the following is an application security technique that can be used to identify unknown weaknesses within the code?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Denial of service
C. Fuzzing
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
The systems administrator wishes to implement a hardware-based encryption method that could also be used to sign code. They can achieve this by:
A. Utilizing the already present TPM.
B. Configuring secure application sandboxes.
C. Enforcing whole disk encryption.
D. Moving data and applications into the cloud.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to play games and utilize instant messaging. Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue?
A. Device encryption
B. Application control
C. Content filtering
D. Screen-locks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of a tracking cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is the BEST reason for placing a password lock on a mobile device?
A. Prevents an unauthorized user from accessing owner’s data
B. Enables remote wipe capabilities
C. Stops an unauthorized user from using the device again
D. Prevents an unauthorized user from making phone calls
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is an XML based open standard used in the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Several employee accounts appear to have been cracked by an attacker. Which of the following should the security administrator implement to mitigate password cracking attacks? (Select TWO).
A. Increase password complexity
B. Deploy an IDS to capture suspicious logins
C. Implement password history
D. Implement monitoring of logins
E. Implement password expiration
F. Increase password length
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 22
To ensure compatibility with their flagship product, the security engineer is tasked to recommend an encryption cipher that will be compatible with the majority of third party software and hardware vendors.
Which of the following should be recommended?
A. SHA
B. MD5
C. Blowfish
D. AES
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
While setting up a secure wireless corporate network, which of the following should Pete, an administrator, avoid implementing?
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. WEP
D. WPA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which of the following protocols uses an asymmetric key to open a session and then establishes a symmetric key for the remainder of the session?
A. SFTP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
The IT department has installed new wireless access points but discovers that the signal extends far into the parking lot. Which of the following actions should be taken to correct this?
A. Disable the SSID broadcasting
B. Configure the access points so that MAC filtering is not used
C. Implement WEP encryption on the access points
D. Lower the power for office coverage only
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
A risk assessment team is concerned about hosting data with a cloud service provider (CSP) which of the following findings would justify this concern?
A. The CPS utilizes encryption for data at rest and in motion
B. The CSP takes into account multinational privacy concerns
C. The financial review indicates the company is a startup
D. SLA state service tickets will be resolved in less than 15 minutes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A computer on a company network was infected with a zero-day exploit after an employee accidently opened an email that contained malicious content. The employee recognized the email as malicious and was attempting to delete it, but accidently opened it. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following should be done to prevent this scenario from occurring again in the future?
A. Install host-based firewalls on all computers that have an email client installed
B. Set the email program default to open messages in plain text
C. Install end-point protection on all computers that access web email
D. Create new email spam filters to delete all messages from that sender
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
A small IT security form has an internal network composed of laptops, servers, and printers. The network has both wired and wireless segments and supports VPN access from remote sites. To protect the network from internal and external threats, including social engineering attacks, the company decides to implement stringent security controls. Which of the following lists is the BEST combination of security controls to implement?
A. Disable SSID broadcast, require full disk encryption on servers, laptop, and personally owned electronic devices, enable MAC filtering on WAPs, require photographic ID to enter the building.
B. Enable port security; divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; apply ACLs to all network equipment; enable MAC filtering on WAPs; and require two-factor authentication for network access.
C. Divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; require the use of one time pads for network key exchange and access; enable MAC filtering ACLs on all servers.
D. Enable SSID broadcast on a honeynet; install monitoring software on all corporate equipment’ install CCTVs to deter social engineering; enable SE Linux in permissive mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A security guard has informed the Chief information Security Officer that a person with a tablet has been walking around the building. The guard also noticed strange white markings in different areas of the parking lot. The person is attempting which of the following types of attacks?
A. Jamming
B. War chalking
C. Packet sniffing
D. Near field communication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A security Operations Center was scanning a subnet for infections and found a contaminated machine.
One of the administrators disabled the switch port that the machine was connected to, and informed a local technician of the infection. Which of the following steps did the administrator perform?
A. Escalation
B. Identification
C. Notification
D. Quarantine
E. Preparation
Correct Answer: CD

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Vendor: Citrix
Exam Name: Citrix XenDesktop 5 Basic Administration
Exam Code: 1Y0-A19
Version: Demo
Total Questions: 90 Q&As
1Y0-A19 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator configured the automatic disk image update feature, but has since noticed that changes to vDisks are not being replicated automatically. What could be a reason for this behavior?
A. The vDisk assigned to the target devices are in private image mode.
B. The target devices need to be reconfigured to point to the new vDisk files.
C. The target device has NOT restarted since the changes were applied to the vDisk.
D. There is more than one vDisk from the same Provisioning services host with the same Class.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
In Desktop Director, which filter shows an administrator the number of end users connected to a certain desktop group within a XenDesktop environment?
A. View All within the machine panel
B. View the desktop group in the usage panel
C. View connections in the infrastructure panel
D. View real time data in the desktop group details panel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which administrative role can manage catalogs and build virtual desktops?
A. Machine administrator
B. Help desk administrator
C. Read-only administrator
D. Desktop group administrator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two components must an administrator install on a master image that will be used for streamed machines? (Choose two.)
A. Receiver
B. Online plug-in
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two components does Citrix recommend an administrator install on a master image for optimal application access? 1Y0-A19 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Online plug-in
B. Offline plug-in
C. EdgeSight agent
D. provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two tools can an administrator use to modify policy settings in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Desktop Studio
B. System Registry
C. Desktop Director
D. Group Policy Editor
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a catalog. Provisioning services-based virtual machines will be imported into the catalog. Which machine type must the administrator select when creating the catalog?
A. Pooled
B. Existing
C. Streamed
D. Dedicated
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two terns are needed for an administrator to create a catalog for existing machines in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines available in the datacenter
B. Active Directory computer accounts for the machines
C. Device collections configured to load the vDisk over the network
D. A PrtMs.on.ng services deployment with a vDisk imaged from the master target device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which policy takes precedence when a Citrix policy contradicts an Active Directory GPO policy?
A. The Citrix policy
B. The higher priority policy
C. The most restrictive policy
D. The Active Directory GPO policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
How can an administrator reallocate an assigned virtual desktop to a new employee? 1Y0-A19 dumps
A. Edit the desktop group, go to the users page and add the new employee.
B. Search for the desktop in Desktop Director, edit the desktop and add the new employee.
C. Select the appropriate catalog, find the machine in the catalog and add the new employee.
D. Find the appropriate desktop in the desktop group, click on `Change user’ and add the new employee.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An administrator was informed by multiple users who access desktops in a desktop group that the time on the desktops is incorrect. How can the administrator fix the time on the desktops?
A. Edit the desktop group and change the time zone in ‘Edit user settings’
B. Put the desktops in maintenance mode and then change the time zone on each desktop.
C. Edit the catalog that was used to create the desktop group with the correct time for the desktops.
D. Put the vDisk image used by the desktops in Private image mode then change the time on the image.
Correct Answer: A

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