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CIS-APM exam

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ServiceNow CIS-APM exam practice questions and answers come from Lead4Pass and share a part for free

QUESTION #1

What are the 4 sections of the APM portal home page that are aligned to The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)? (Choose four.)

A. Information Portfolio
B. Service Portfolio
C. Catalog Portfolio
D. Application Portfolio
E. Business Portfolio
F. Technology Portfolio
Correct Answer: ADEF
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/concept/application-portfolio-management-home.html

QUESTION #2

What is the name of the basic plugin for the APM application?

A. Application Portfolio Management
B. Business Planner
C. Financial Management for APM
D. Application Portfolio Management – ATF Tests
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/task/activate-apm.html

QUESTION #3

APM combines with several ServiceNow technologies to provide a comprehensive view of your customer\’s application
portfolio. Why would a customer want to utilize information from ServiceNow ServiceMapping? (Choose two.)

A. Identify your customer\’s applications\’ underlying technologies.
B. Identify your customer\’s application services.
C. Produce a horizontal picture of a customer\’s business applications.
D. Create an application inventory.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION #4

When you approve a retirement Business Application request, which system property determines whether a project or a demand is created?

A. sn_apm.retireBusinessApplication
B. sn_apm.retireBusinessApplicationTaskType
C. sn_apm.businessApplication
D. sn_apm.retire
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/task/manage-business-appln.html

QUESTION #5

What are the business problems that customers are trying to resolve by utilizing Application Portfolio Management(APM)? (Choose two.)

A. Gain a comprehensive understanding of business applications in the organization
B. Reduce the number of governance controls
C. Identify redundancies and decrease budgetary costs
D. Maintain relationships with Product Vendors
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/concept/application-portfolio-management.html

QUESTION #6

Which attributes can be used to categorize business applications? (Choose four.)

A. Application Score
B. Application Name
C. Application Family
D. Portfolio
E. Category
F. Business Unit
Correct Answer: BCDE

QUESTION #7

What relationship type is used to describe a relationship between a business capability and a business application?

A. Used: Used by
B. Depends on: Used by
C. Provides: Provided by
D. Runs on: Runs
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfoliomanagement/task/establish-CI-relationship.html

QUESTION #8

What is the value of managing applications using ServiceNow?

A. Allows data collection and visualization without manual effort
B. Allows automation of retiring applications
C. Provides application owners insight to release counts
D. Provides top-down strategic alignment in the PMO
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION #9

During the customer workshop, Kelly was identified as needing a role that would grant access to create bubble charts,
set up application classification attributes, and assess indicators. Which role should be assigned to Kelly?

A. sn_apm.apm_admin
B. sn_apm.apm_user
C. sn_apm.apm_analyst
D. business_planner
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/ application-portfolio
management/task/create-application-indicators.html

QUESTION #10

What are the stages of the APM rationalization process?

A. Measure, Evaluate, Decide, Take Action, Baseline
B. Identify, Measure, Evaluate, Decide, Take Action
C. Identify, Measure, Decide, Take Action, Communicate
D. Identify, Measure, Evaluate, Take Action, Certify
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=v2iw0UVkxmU (6:33)

QUESTION #11

Stephen discovers that his customer is looking to achieve Basic Rationalization including application scoring. What APM maturity level does this align to?

A. Level 2
B. Level 1
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION #12

The capability map provides a hierarchical view of the business capabilities in an organization. How many levels does the capability hierarchy support in its series?

A. 7
B. 8
C. 10
D. 6
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/paris-it-business-management/page/product/applicationportfoliomanagement/task/create-a-business-capability.html

QUESTION #13

What are the three segments of the Business Application Costing Model? (Choose three.)

A. Business Processes
B. Manufacturers
C. Business Applications
D. IT Shared Services
E. Business Units
Correct Answer: CDE
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/quebec-it-business-management/page/product/it-finance/
concept/preconfigured-prescriptive-cost-models-two.html


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QUESTION 1
Which types of host ports are supported by the 2200 V3? (Multiple Choice)
A. 16/8Gbit/s FC
B. 10 Gbit/s iSCSI
C. 1 Gbit/s iSCSI
D. 10 Gbit/s FCoE E. SAS
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about SAN?
A. SAN includes IP SAN and FC SAN
B. Server and storage equipment are connected through storage network
C. Application server and storage equipment can be expanded separately
D. SAN can provide file access and file sharing services
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
How many host ports can a 2200 V3 support?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which advantages does Dorado V3 have in the VDI scenario? (Multiple Choice)
A. Support to more virtual desktops based on high performance, inline deduplication and compression
B. No desktop boot/login storm
C. Larger storage capacity
D. Faster response of desktops
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the maximum performance (IOPS@SPC-l) that OceanStor V5 can achieve?
A. 6 Million IOPS@lms
B. 4 Million IOPS@lms
C. 3 Million IOPS@lms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Which is not a front-end port of Dorado V3?
A. 8 Gbit/s and 16 Gbit/s FC
B. 40 Gbit/s InfiniBand
C. 56 Gbit/s InfiniBand
D. 10 Gbit/s iSCSI and FCOE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
2200 V3 supports SAS host ports.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
OceanStor F V5 series and V5 series can migrate data from heterogeneous third-party storage devices without
interrupting services.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What are the major changes of OceanStor V5 compared with OceanStor V3?
A. Hardware upgrade
B. Software re-written
C. Both hardware and software completely changed
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following NL-SAS disk specifications does OceanStor V5 NOT support?
A. 2 TB
B. 3 TB
C. 4TB
D. 6 TB
E. 8 TB
F. 10 TB
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
File data stored in OceanStor 9000 is divided into N fragments and M redundant fragments, M ranges from 2 to 18.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which types of node can OceanStor 9000 support? (Multiple Choice)
A. P12E
B. P25E
C. P36E
D. C36E
E. C72
Correct Answer: ABCDE

 

QUESTION 13
Dorado V3 supports adjusting the LUN granularity based on applications.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following reasons is incorrect for RDMA communication used by some applications in the industry?
A. QandM is simplified.
B. The CPU load is reduced.
C. The communication delay is reduced.
D. The throughput is improved.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 2
NE20E-S max forwarding performance is( )now
A. 240Mpps
B. 360Mpps
C. 480Mpps
D. 960Mpps
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following switches supports MPLS?
A. S5720-LI
B. S5720-SI
C. S6720-SI
D. S5720-HI
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 4
Cisco vpc is similar to () feature of CE switch.
A. CSS
B. VS
C. iStack
D. M-LAG
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which AP supports the feature of smart antenna? (Multiple Choice)
A. AP5030DN
B. AP7050DE
C. AP7030DE
D. AP2030DN
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
Which radio frequency can AP8150DN work at? (Multiple Choice)
A. 2.4GHz + 2.4Ghz
B. 2.4GHz+ 5GHz
C. 5GHz + 5GHz
D. 2.4GHz + 5GHz + 2.4GHz
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 7
Which AR model support WIFI feature?
A. AR1220E
B. AR1220C
C. AR2220
D. AR503GW-LM7
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
VS (Virtual System) is 1:16 for CloudEngine 12800
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
CE6810U and CE5855EI can both support TRILL.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which VPNs AR G3 support? (Multiple Choice)
A. L2TP
B. GRE
C. OSPFv3
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 11
NE08E routers support STM-4 cards.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which OandM methods are supported by AR G3 routers?
A. USB-based batch deployment
B. Web GUI
C. Command Line Interface (CLI)
D. SNMP management
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 13
Which switch has no fan?
A. S5700-28P-LI
B. S5700-28X-PWR-LI
C. S5700-52P-LI
D. S5700-52X-LI
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What operations can a shared image provider perform? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Add tenants who can use a shared image
B. Share a specified image
C. Remove tenants who can use a shared image
D. Delete a shared image
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagementservice

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are acceleration scenarios supported by HUAWEI CLOUD CDN? (Choose all that apply.)
A. VOD acceleration
B. Website acceleration
C. Download acceleration
D. Whole site acceleration
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/product/cdn.html

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not a function of WAF?
A. Defense against brute force attacks on ECSs
B. Website anti-crawler
C. Data leakage prevention
D. Web tamper protection
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/product/waf.html

QUESTION 4
An EVS disk can be attached to a cloud server that comes from a different AZ as the EVS disk.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/evs_faq/evs_faq_0036.html

QUESTION 5
CBR supports one-off backup and periodic backup.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-cbr/cbr_01_0002.html

QUESTION 6
ELB supports cloud servers running different OSs.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/elb_faq/elb_faq_0064.html

QUESTION 7
The IoTA service provides complete data capabilities for IoT data developers based on IoT asset models. It
consolidates data integration, cleansing, storage, analysis, and visualization.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/en-us/solution/iot/

QUESTION 8
Which of the following about bucket operations in OBS is false?
A. Modifying a bucket
B. Formatting a bucket
C. Creating a bucket
D. Deleting a bucket
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/usermanual-obs/en-us_topic_0045853662.html

QUESTION 9
With advanced Anti-DDoS (AAD), you can change the DNS server or external service IP address to a high-defense IP
address, thereby diverting traffic to an AAD server room to scrub malicious attack traffic. Which of the following is the
location scrubbed traffic is forwarded to?
A. Client
B. DNS
C. Origin server
D. AAD server room
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www-file.huawei.com/-/media/corporate/pdf/trust-center/cloud-security-white-paper2017-en.pdf
(DNS)

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements about ECSs are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can view ECS resources on the console
B. You can create and delete ECSs, reinstall and change OSs, and start or stop ECSs
C. You can use public images, private images, or shared images to apply for ECSs
D. You can add and remove extension NICs, add EIPs, attach and detach disks, and create key pairs
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagementservice

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are advantages of SFS over traditional shared file storage? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Superior performance and reliability: SFS enables file system performance to increase as capacity grows, and
delivers high data durability to support rapid business growth.
B. Seamless integration: SFS supports NFS and CIFS protocols. With these standard protocols, a broad range of
mainstream applications can read data from and write data to a file system.
C. File sharing: ECSs in AZs of the same region can access the same file system concurrently and share files.
D. Easy operation and low costs: In an intuitive GUI, you can create and manage file systems with ease.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-sfs/sfs-productdesc.pdf (page 2)

QUESTION 12
WAF detects abnormalities in HTTP requests to prevent web page tampering, information leakage, and Trojan horse
implantation.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/solution/finance/ (comprehensive protection)

QUESTION 13
Traditional IT infrastructure architecture is already unable to support efficient enterprise operations. Which of the
following is not a key cause?
A. High TCO
B. Slow network rates
C. Slow service rollout and complex lifecycle management
D. I/O bottlenecks restricting application performance
Correct Answer: C


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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be used for communications between the network of an on-premises data center and a VPC
subnet? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Direct Connect
B. VPN
C. EIP
D. ELB
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/bestpractice-cc/cc_04_0004.html

QUESTION 2
Which of the following policies is suitable for increasing the number of instances in an AS group at a fixed time each
week?
A. Alarm
B. Scheduled
C. Periodic
D. All of above
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/71864455/as-group

QUESTION 3
CBR supports one-off backup and periodic backup.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-cbr/cbr_01_0002.html

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are advantages of SFS over traditional shared file storage? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Superior performance and reliability: SFS enables file system performance to increase as capacity grows, and
delivers high data durability to support rapid business growth.
B. Seamless integration: SFS supports NFS and CIFS protocols. With these standard protocols, a broad range of
mainstream applications can read data from and write data to a file system.
C. File sharing: ECSs in AZs of the same region can access the same file system concurrently and share files.
D. Easy operation and low costs: In an intuitive GUI, you can create and manage file systems with ease.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-sfs/sfs-productdesc.pdf (page 2)

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a standard image type provided on the public cloud platform and available to all users?
A. Public image
B. Private image
C. Shared image
D. Marketplace image
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagementservice

QUESTION 6
HUAWEI CLOUD sends service alarms to customers using the SMN service.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/6acab1a0/systemmanagement

QUESTION 7
Which of the following about bucket operations in OBS is false?
A. Modifying a bucket
B. Formatting a bucket
C. Creating a bucket
D. Deleting a bucket
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/usermanual-obs/en-us_topic_0045853662.html

QUESTION 8
You can batch create SFS file systems.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following services can be used with ELB? (Choose all that apply.)
A. VPC
B. AS
C. Cloud Eye
D. CTS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
When using OBS, which of the following cannot be configured for uploading objects.
A. Storage class
B. KMS encryption
C. Storage path
D. Object size
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Cloud Eye can monitor instance and bandwidth scaling in AS.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Direct Connect provides Layer 2 connections.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/usermanual-vpc/vpc_l2cg_0001.html

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a relational database service provided by HUAWEI CLOUD?
A. GaussDB (openGauss)
B. GaussDB (for PostgreSQL)
C. GaussDB (for MySQL)
D. GaussDB (for Mongo)
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.programmersought.com/article/96645022199/


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QUESTION 1
What are the key differentiators between an HR Profile record and a User record? (Choose three.)
A. The HR Profile stores the employee\\’s assigned delegates.
B. The HR Profile includes group membership information.
C. The HR Profile includes employee organizational information like Colleagues.
D. The HR Profile stores login credential information.
E. The HR Profile may include employee marital status.
F. The HR Profile is intended to store confidential employee data that is pertinent for HR.
Correct Answer: AEF
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-servicedelivery/page/product/humanresources/concept/c_HRProfileRecords.html

 

QUESTION 2
Scenario: You have an existing ITSM customer who is now implementing HR Enterprise. In UAT, they discovered that a
new button on the HR case, created using the Link Generator application, is not displaying the appropriate web page.
Instead, they get a Page Not Found error. You have verified that the Link configuration and script are both accurate.
What else must be done to allow the Link to work?
A. The Status of the associated record on the Application Restricted Caller Access list must be set to Denied.
B. You must create a custom ACL to allow the link to work.
C. The Status of the associated record on the Application Restricted Caller Access list must be set to Allowed.
D. You must change the Scope for the link to work.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
What provides a graphical representation of other tables related to a specific table, either through class extension or
reference?
A. System Structure
B. Table Map
C. System Map
D. Schema Map
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
The HR Profile table is used to track information for what Employment types? (Choose three.)
A. Other
B. Potential Employee
C. Full Time Employee
D. Temporary Employee
E. Spouse
F. Contractor
Correct Answer: CDF

 

QUESTION 5
When an employee completes a questionnaire on an Employee Form, on which table does the system store their
answers?
A. Form [sys_ui_form]
B. Metric Result [asmt_metric_result]
C. Question Answer [question_answer]
D. HR Case [sn_hr_core_case]
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-servicedelivery/page/product/humanresources/concept/employee-form-configuration.html

 

QUESTION 6
If the Audience field has been configured on a Lifecycle Event Activity, what will the system do if the subject person
does not meet the criteria for that Activity?
A. the activity must be manually closed by the HR professional
B. the Lifecycle Event will be canceled
C. the activity must be manually closed by the Subject person
D. the activity will be skipped
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-servicedelivery/page/product/humanresources/task/configure-hr-lifecycle-event-activity.html

 

QUESTION 7
What must be updated or loaded into the Customer\\’s instance before importing the stories?
A. Backlog
B. Epics
C. Products
D. Groups
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
In which module can the HR admin manage the HR email address for incoming HR requests?
A. HR Administration > Email Administration
B. System Properties > Email Setup
C. System Properties > Email Properties
D. HR Administration > Properties
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
What are the advantages of removing the HR Admin role from the System Admin role after the HR Implementation tasks
have been completed? (Choose two.)
A. This ensures that HR has control over further HR configurations.
B. The HR Admin role should remain a part of the System Admin role.
C. This ensures that confidential HR data is only accessible to users with an HR role.
D. It is not necessary because the system Admin always has access to all HR data.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-service-delivery/page/product/humanresources/task/t_HRRemoveAdminRole.html

 

QUESTION 10
In the HR Guided Setup Module, the Configuration View displays which of the following for a Category? (Choose three.)
A. Properties
B. Gauges
C. Dashboards
D. Lists
E. Overviews
F. Forms
Correct Answer: ADF
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/kingston-hr-service-delivery/page/product/humanresources/reference/r_HRConfigViewPage.html

 

QUESTION 11
A user with only the HR Admin [sn_hr_core.admin] role can save and modify which copies of existing reports?
A. All
B. Global
C. Group
D. Personal
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
HR Administrators can configure a personal copy of the HR Case Dashboard using which of the following buttons?
(Choose two.)
A. Change Layout
B. Delete Content
C. Modify Layout
D. Add Content
E. Add Layout
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 13
If you wanted someone to administer the Employee Service Center without granting them the HR Admin role, which
scoped Admin role would they need?
A. Service Portal Admin [sn_hr_sp.admin]
B. Widget Admin [sn_hr_widget.admin]
C. Employee Files Admin [sn_hr_ef.admin]
D. Integrations Admin [sn_hr_integrations.admin]
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Define service requirements
B. Monitoring and improving plans
C. Planning
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Consider a change that has been performed before and is part of the operational practice of the business. What is the
category of this change?
A. Minor
B. Standard
C. Major
D. Significant
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the goal of the Change and Configuration SMF?
A. Ensure that business changes are aligned with organizational direction
B. Decrease time to resolve problems from failed changes
C. Reduction in incidents
D. Create an environment where changes can be made with the least amount of risk and impact to the organization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which SMF has \\’Filter the problem\\’ as a process step?
A. Customer Service
B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which is not part of the Envision SMF process flow?
A. approve the vision/scope document
B. organize the core project team
C. write the vision/scope document
D. write the project plan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What is the primary goal of the Operate phase?
A. ensure that deployed services are operated, monitored and supported all the time
B. ensure high availability of services
C. ensure that deployed services are operated, monitored and supported within agreed SLA targets
D. ensure that IT services are restored as quickly as possible
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What Team SMF accountabilities are primarily represented in the Operate Phase?
A. Architecture and Solutions
B. Operations and Support
C. Service and Compliance
D. Support and Manage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which Management Review (MR) concludes deployment?
A. The Deployment Complete Milestone
B. The Project Plan Approved MR
C. The Portfolio MR
D. The Release Readiness Review
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which Phase or layer provides the basis for developing and operating a resilient IT environment?
A. Deliver phase
B. Manage layer
C. Operate phase
D. Plan phase
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Preparing the functional specification and solution design and preparing work plans belongs to which SMF?
A. Build
B. Deploy
C. Project Planning
D. Stabilize
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is the IT service lifecycle composed of?
A. Build phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase, Manage layer
B. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deploy phase, Operate phase
C. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase
D. Plan phase, Develop phase, Operate phase, Manage phase
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Why would you use the GRC SMF?
A. to assess, monitor and control risk
B. to maintain configuration baselines
C. to manage change
D. to understand accountabilities
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is a correct use of a value stream map?
A. Identifying and eliminating bottlenecks in the process
B. Inserting feedback from the customer into the process
C. Visualizing the work that is done or is in process
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=FlZeAgAAQBAJandpg=PT30andlpg=PT30anddq=exin+correct+use+
of+a+value+stream+mapandsource=blandots=TlRWGeS-Zmandsig=ACfU3U3P5fpCgM_hBEMNdj00fiknvrnigandhl=en
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QUESTION 2
What should be taken into account most when prioritizing tasks according to DevOps practices?
A. How long the task has waited
B. How much the team likes the task
C. How much value the task adds
D. How much work the task takes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A commonly understood definition of the term `time-to-market\\’ is:
The time between business idea and the possibility of a customer purchase.
Which two DevOps practices may help reduce the time-to-market for a company? (Choose two.)
A. Continuous delivery and deployment
B. Continuous identification and reduction of losses
C. Extreme programming
D. Pair programming
E. Visualizing the Work-in-Progress (WiP)
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
DevOps practices incorporate the value stream concept from Lean Production. What is a value stream?
A. The amount of products that are delivered within a timeframe
B. The sequence of releases that deliver a working product
C. The series of actions performed to fulfill any type of request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
IT work within DevOps is organized differently from more traditional practices, using newer infrastructure management
technologies to make this possible. Which two technologies are meant? (Choose two.)
A. Automation
B. Cloud computing
C. Containerization
D. Software robots
E. Virtualization
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
What is a benefit of the way the Definition of Done is defined in DevOps?
A. The team focuses less on the “what” and more on “when”
B. The team focuses less on the “what and more” on “where”
C. The team focuses less on the “what” and more on “who”
D. The team focuses less on the “what” and more on “why”
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Even more than Agile or Scrum, DevOps encourages continuous delivery of new functionality and continuous feedback
from the customer. What does this achieve?
A. It increases the team\\’s responsibility
B. It improves customer relations
C. It yields a greater return on IT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Time-to-market is very important.
In what way is DevOps supporting a short time-to-market?
A. By funding products and not projects, to allow for innovation and optimization
B. By reassembling a DevOps team for each project to ensure relevant experience
C. By training the team based on missing knowledge for each new iteration
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.exin.com/article/devops-indispensable-agile-work?language_content_entity=en

QUESTION 9
Why is reducing the fragility of a business system difficult?
A. Because doing so will disrupt the current product and service timelines
B. Because doing so will increase the number of incidents that occur temporarily
C. Because it is difficult to deliberately introduce chaos into the Production environment
D. Because of the high risks of business disruption when integrating large numbers of systems
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=gBSGDwAAQBAJandpg=PA19andlpg=PA19anddq=devops+reducin
g+the+fragility+of+a+business+system+difficult+high+risks+of+business+disruption+when+integrating+large+numbers+
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ndved=2ahUKEwitxeLciL3lAhX8BGMBHZlpBEcQ6AEwAHoECAkQAQ

QUESTION 10
DevOps implies that not only the boundary between Development and Operations must disappear. Which another boundary must also disappear?
A. The boundary between Development and marketing
B. The boundary between IT management and the rest of the IT department
C. The boundary between the finance department and Development
D. The boundary between the HR department and Operations
E. The boundary between the IT department and the business
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which architecture is a cause of the problems with DevOps that a microservice architecture solves?
A. Intel x86 architecture
B. Mainframe architecture
C. Monolithic architecture
D. Serverless architecture
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://dzone.com/articles/what-problems-do-microservices-solve-2

QUESTION 12
A company decides to do canary releases for some new functionality. What is a description of a canary release?
A. Releasing to a limited number of users, before releasing it to all users
B. Switching users from interacting with one release to the next within seconds
C. Test business hypotheses by having half of the users switch to a news release
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.modernanalyst.com/Careers/InterviewQuestions/tabid/128/ID/5041/What-is-a-canary-releaseand-what-are-some-of-the-benefits.aspx

QUESTION 13
What helps a DevOps team to successfully develop and deliver working software?
A. Allowing your DevOps teams to develop their own specific mission
B. Forming a DevOps team for a short period of time during a project
C. Identifying, fixing, and learning from errors only after your project ended
D. Writing code for software to have built-in quality as the main goal
Correct Answer: D

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